MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT

1. An_________ customer is a person or organization that receives services or products in exchange for compensation.
a) Internal
b) External
c) In-house
d) Departmental
External

2. Improving external customer satisfaction is the main objective of __________.
a) Customer service department.
b) Retired employees
c) Maintenance departments
d) HR departments.
customer service

3. Vendors could be considered what type of customer?
a) Main
b) Substantial
c) Internal
d) External
external

4. Customer satisfaction should always be the first objective considered when developing _________.
a) Vendors
b) New or improved products
c) Teamwork
d) Training matrix
new or improved products

5. The ________ of the product describes the features requested for the product to perform the tasks for which it was intended.
a) Form
b) Function
c) Cost
d) Utilization
function

6. Product designers should always consider the effects of tooling design and cost during ___________.
a) Prototype development
b) Process capability studies
c) Team kickoff meetings
d) Maintenance of a machine
prototype development

7. Product design teams should provide an environment that encourages ________.
a) Criticize other team members at any time
b) Add their design ideas freely
c) Attend meetings whenever they are available
d) Report team meetings to the boss
Add their design ideas free

8. Teamwork, concurrent engineering, tools and techniques are needed in order to make _______________.
a) Product introduction
b) Sales
c) Product scam prevention efforts
d) Safety tests
Product introduction

9. Engineers working with manufacturing to become aware of tooling limitations and other problems that may increase production time and cost is an example of _____________.
a) Brainstorming
b) Product analysis
c) Concurrent engineering
d) Production processing
Concurrent engineering

10. _______ is a design methodology that designs features into the product that makes it cheaper to manufacture, while maintaining its ability to perform its intended function.
a) Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA)
b) Design Criteria and Performance (DCP)
c) Design, Manufacture, Deliver (DMD)
d) Design for Production and Performance (DPP)
Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA)

11. to be successful ________must be tied to the company’s business plan.
a) Team goals
b) Donations to the community
c) The stock market
d) Cross-Training assignments
team goals

12. A team should develop a spending plan as part of their decision making process ________________.
a) to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project
b) to ensure that they use all the money allocated to the project
c) in case they are audited
d) because it is a requirement of all teams
to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project

13. Supervisors should set measurable objectives to have a way to ____________.
a) Eliminate the need to review employees
b) Limit the number of employees who can receive a bonus
c) Have good performance criteria for review of employee performance
d) Have a way to collect data to satisfy management reports
Have good performance criteria for review of employee performance

14. People working together discussing issues and making decisions are key elements of a _______________.
a) successful work group
b) SPC program
c) JIT process
d) Histogram
successful work group

15. Company objectives and production goals are important pieces of data to __________.
a) Retired employee
b) Forklift training certification data
c) Self-directed work team
d) Predictive maintenance program
Self-directed work team

16. Promoting competition among teams or departments _________________.
a) Helps management set their own goals
b) Helps establish the baseline to set team goals
c) Is a reason to set measurable team goals
d) Is not a reason to set measurable team goals
Is not a reason to set measurable team goals

17. Top level management must support a team for it to be ______________.
a) Successful
b) Ratified
c) Certified
Fully staffed
Successful

18. When a team sets objectives that they wish to accomplish, care should be taken to ensure that these objectives are _____________.
a) Aggressive
b) Predictable
c) Measurable
d) Justifiable
measurable

19. To ensure that a team has____________ meetings, rules for team behavior should be enforced.
a) Weekly
b) Unproductive
c) Productive
d) Long
productive

20. The first step in a team development process is an awkward stage for the team members called ______________.
a) Storming
b) Norming
c) Performing
d) Forming
forming

21. When a team is formed to tackle a problem, _______________________.
a) Supervisor is placed in charge
b) Set of guidelines is supplied to guide decisions
c) Cost evaluation is performed to justify their work
d) Team kickoff meeting is held to get everyone up to speed on the task and meet each other
Team kickoff meeting is held to get everyone up to speed on the task and meet each other

22. ______________ is a technique teams use for generating as many ideas as possible.
a) Storming
b) Norming
c) Brainstorming
d) Pareto principle
Brainstorming

23. During a team meeting, any solutions to the problem being discussed that do not meet one or more of the must-have criteria should be _______________.
a) Discussed fully
b) Tabled to a later meeting
c) Given equal consideration
d) Eliminated
Eliminated

24. Customer service refers to people and other resources a company devotes to ________.
a) assisting customers
b) product design
c) sales
d) cost analysis
assisting customers

25. In customer service, it is important to ________________.
a) never admit being at fault
b) look into the customer’s problem, find a solution, and follow through
c) make the customer admit to being at least partially at fault
d) make the customer like you even it it means placing the blame on someone else in the organization
look into the customer’s problem, find a solution, and follow through

26. Teams should strictly enforce rules about _______to minimize conflict.
a) attendance
b) arguing
c) goal setting
d) Facilitator selection
arguing

27. Which type of customer service information stored in a database could help to improve product quality? __________________.
a) concerns customers have with specific problems
b) customer orders
c) customer banking information
d) customer addresses.
concerns customers have with specific problems

28. When a customer service agent answers the phone, they should try to answer between the ______________.
a) second and the fourth ring
b) third and the fifth ring
c) first and the second ring
d) fourth and the fifth ring
second and the fourth ring

29. Which of the following is not used as a problem analysis tool? ____________.
a) Brainstorming
b) Shipping Manifest
c) Cause and effect diagrams
d) Root cause analysis
shipping manifest

30. In a team, the _________ is the one who will stimulate or guide the group to think of ideas.
a) facilitator
b) recorder
c) president
d) supervisor
facilitator

31. ____________ involves every employee in the company continually looking for ways to improve processes, and eliminate wasteful actions.
a) Concurrent engineering
b) Continuous improvement
c) Customer service
d) Product development
continuous improvement

32. Reaching a _________ means that although the chosen solution may not be the first choice of everyone on the team, each member supports that solution as a viable option.
a) impass
b) majority
c) milestone
d) consensus
consensus

33. To be successful in achieving a goal, _______ must be capable of bringing people together, motivating them and finally focusing them in the right direction.
a) Quality worker
b) Leader
c) vendor
d) maintenance worker
Leader

34. One method used by _________ to get a team started in the right direction is to sequence the start up activities.
a) A team leader
b) a vendor
c) An outside consultant
d) Top management
A team leader

35. A team leader is responsible for setting up internal quality audits __________.
a) The team is not spending too much money
b) The teams increased pay rate is justified
c) Production rates have increased
d) Procedures are in place and being followed
Procedures are in place and being followed

36. The specific tasks an employee will be required to perform are described in ________.
a) Company newsletter
b) Job descriptions
c) Employee evaluations
d) Machine operation manuals
job descriptions

37. Project management should include __________enable team leaders on other projects to identify availability of potential team members.
a) Guarantee of long term work for team members
b) Planned release of personnel as the project comes to an end
c) Record of underperforming team members
d) Planned transfer of unused funds to other teams
Planned release of personnel as the project comes to an end

38. Cross-training increases an employee’s value to the company because they have additional skill and________.
a) Are eligible for increased pay
b) Shorter work periods
c) A better understanding of related job functions
d) Can demand more benefits.
A better understanding of related job functions

A training matrix or database that contains a list of employees and their specific skills ____________.
a) Is an invasion of privacy
b) Is used by HR for payroll
c) Should be sold to telemarketers
d) Should be used to assign people to jobs in areas where they already contain the required skills
Should be used to assign people to jobs in areas where they already contain the required skills

40. Communicating ____________is important when training employees.
a) At the appropriate level
b) Loudly
c) In writing
d) In multimedia
At the appropriate level

41. An average worker’s productivity would be included in ______________.
a) His or her time report
b) Job standards description
c) Calculation of break times
d) Job Safety Analysis
Job standards description

42. Demonstrating the skills and abilities learned is a common component of a(n) ___________.
a) Orientation program
b) Apprentice program
c) Quality circle meeting
d) Team kickoff meeting.
Apprentice program

43. Companies have a better ability to match workers to specific job needs if they use _________.
a) Statistical Process Control
b) Cross-training
c) Sensitivity
d) Better background hiring checks
Cross-training

44. In today’s competitive markets, processes and people are constantly changing, resulting in a large need for ____________.
a) Unskilled workers
b) Training
c) Decreased quality
d) Longer cycle times
Training

45. An employee will receive an update to their training record to reflect their certification when _____________.
a) Forklift training is completed
b) Forklift training is started
c) New employee training is completed
d) Packaging training is completed
Forklift training is completed

46. The equipment manufacturer is often the best source of ___________.
a) Training on a new piece of equipment
b) Training on your company’s policies and procedures
c) Product cost analysis
d) Employee interviews
Training on a new piece of equipment

46. The equipment manufacturer is often the best source of ___________.
a) Training on a new piece of equipment
b) Training on your company’s policies and procedures
c) Product cost analysis
d) Employee interviews
Training on a new piece of equipment

47. Manufacturing companies use _____ to save time and reduce cost of operation.
a) Doctor visits
b) Reactive maintenance
c) OSHA regulations
d) Training
Training

48. Job shadowing requires an employee that is being cross-trained to ______.
a) Do all the work while the experienced worker observes
b) Create a set of procedures for the job.
c) Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow
d) Come in after hours for training
Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow

49. Companies often add production by adding another shift. If operators are hired for a new shift what will be needed? ___________
a) Customer shipment records
b) Records of vacation time owed to existing operators
c) Personnel records of existing operators
d) Training records of existing operators
Training records of existing operators

50. A machinist who has learned to weld has undergone_________.
a) Transformation
b) Cross-training
c) Special training
d) Rehabilitation
Cross-training

51. Measurable ____________are important to the training process.
a) Regulations
b) Profits
c) Objectives
d) Restrictions
Objectives

52. When is the best time to offer safety-related training to employees? ________.
a) Before an OSHA audit
b) After there has been a serious accident
c) At the end of the workday
d) At new employee orientation
At new employee orientation

Communication skills used by team members should include written communication, oral communication, ___________ and listening skills.
a) Written communication
b) Brainstorming
c) Indirect communication
d) Direct communication
Written communication

54. Clear statement of expectations are needed when _____________.
a) Training employees
b) Ordering lunch
c) Writing safety manuals
d) Giving directions
Training employees

A good manager will attempt to develop a compromise between two workers __________.
a) Want to work together
b) Use SPC charts
c) Have developed a conflict
d) Are married to each other
Have developed a conflict

56. When you give positive feedback, always make sure that you are __________.
a) Believable whether or not you are being honest
b) Sincere
c) Encouraging them to do more
d) Comparing them to other team members
Sincere

57. An organizational method for the production areas that groups together all the machines that are needed to produce a part or a group of parts is called ________.
a) Traditional
b) Cellular
c) Pod
d) Flow
Cellular

58. Priority jobs should be discussed at ___________.
a) At the beginning of shift meetings
b) At the end of shift meetings
c) Only when management is present
d) Once a month at team meetings.
At the beginning of shift meetings

59. ________ management presents the information about the production process in a visual format so that the workers can use it to improve efficiency and promote safety.
a) Top-down
b) Self-directed
c) Visual
d) Concurrent
Visual

60. When team members reach a significant point in their work to improve a process, it is called a ____________.
a) Signature turning point
b) Milestone
c) Turn for the worse
d) Starting point
Milestone

61. A ________is used to establish a baseline measurement for evaluation of the process.
a) Metric
b) Pinnacle
c) Process chart
d) Production schedule
Metric

62. Data results are required to be made available to employees who participate in team building exercises.
a) Team building exercises
b) Environmental tests
c) Holiday activities
d) Fire drills
Environmental tests

63. When circumstances at work create a dangerous situation, you should _________.
a) Not proceed until the dangerous situation is eliminated
b) Proceed with the utmost care
c) Ensure that personal protective equipment is used
d) Apply for hazardous duty pay.
Not proceed until the dangerous situation is eliminated

64. What should a worker do if a paint filtering system breaks down and paint is being blown out on top of the roof?
a) The system should be shut down.
b) The system can be safely run until the maintenance team arrives.
c) The employees should be notified
The system should be shut down.

65. Everyone in the workplace is responsible for ________.
a) SPC analysis
b) Product inspections
c) Understanding JIT guidelines
d) Accident prevention
Accident prevention

66. _______ is the federal agency that publishes and enforces safety and health regulations for companies in the United States.
a) OSHA
b) FDA
c) FCC
d) FICA
OSHA

67. Taken corrective action based on safety regulations from employees will ____________.
a) encourage employees to report safety suggestions.
b) prevent employees from reporting safety suggestions.
c) increase the overall cost of the product.
d) reduce the amount of rework.
encourage employees to report safety suggestions.

68. OSHA stands for _________________.
a) Occasionally Suppliers Have Accidents
b) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c) Office of Safe Housing Authority
d) Office of Safety & Hazardous Areas
Occupational Safety and Health Administration

69. You should immediately report _____________ to reduce the possibility of other complications.
a) Low production rates
b) On-the-job injuries
c) Suggestions for changes in Holiday rules
d) Interest in changing jobs
On-the-job injuries

70. Supervisors andor safety committees should be made aware of possible improvements in ergonomics.
a) Cost overruns
b) Only items that do not get people in trouble
c) possible improvements in ergonomics.
d) Unclean areas
possible improvements in ergonomics

71. New employees or contractors should be instructed in proper evacuation procedures
a) In case they forget their access passes
b) to ensure that they can exit the facility safely in case of an emergency.
c) Unless they work in a safe area
d) Only if they didn’t receive this instruction at their previous place of employment
to ensure that they can exit the facility safely in case of an emergency

72. Human caused injuries may be broken down further into two sub-categories __________ and accidental.
a) Intentional
b) Carelessness
c) Threatening
d) Hostile
Hostile

73. Zero tolerance is a typical company policy to address _________.
a) Absenteeism
b) Violent behavior
c) Safety violations
d) Vacation abuse
Violent behavior

74. An assessment of safety and environmental compliance is required when_______________.
a) Making repairs
b) installing new equipment
c) hiring contractors
d) packaging equipment for shipment
installing new equipment

75. If you notice an employee acting in a manner that jeopardizes the safety of others, and you do not feel comfortable approaching that person, you should tell your coworkers to approach the person.
a) Report the person to a supervisor immediately
b) tell your coworkers to approach the person
c) report the actions to a supervisor at the end of the shift
d) write a note and leave it at the person’s workstation
Report the person to a supervisor immediately

76. An employee should perform an immediate emergency shutdown of their machine and evacuate the building if __________________.
a) An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger
b) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is clearly a sign of danger
c) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is no sign of danger
d) The weather service issues a sever weather warning
An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger

77. Operating procedures would normally be found in__________________.
a) Work training manuals
b) Equipment manuals
c) SOP manuals
d) Emergency manuals
Work training manuals

78. Which of the following should be done when a new or different machine is installed?
a) A lockouttagout
b) A job safety analysis
c) An environmental test
d) An MSDS report
A job safety analysis

79. Every person in the company is responsible for __________________.
a) Supervision of other employees
b) Handling of hazardous materials
c) Performing any job in the company
d) Preventing unsafe conditions
Preventing unsafe conditions

80. When a supervisor is aware of a personal argument between two employees, what should heshe do?
a) Do not get involved
b) Make sure there are no threats to an employee’s safety.
c) Warn both employees to keep their problems outside work
d) Choose a side and stick to it
Make sure there are no threats to an employee’s safety

81. The human resources department is the most common source of information about ___________.
a) Machine start-up procedures
b) Appropriate behavior
c) Productivity improvements
d) Quality
Appropriate behavior

82. If you notice a forklift truck driver operating the forklift while falling asleep, you should ____________.
a) Call the supervisor the first chance you get
b) Ignore it. It’s not your job
c) Get them off the forklift
d) Yell loudly to wake them up
Get them off the forklift

83. Anyone who notices another employee engaging in an unsafe practice should __________.
a) Send an anomonous letter to the supervisor
b) Report the incident to the safety committee
c) get constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice.
get constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice

84. The _____________ should be informed if one of the contractors is creating or operating in an unsafe condition.
a) Company president
b) Safety officer
c) Company security
d) Project manager
Project manager

85. When an alarm sounds, you should initiate emergency shutdown procedures and evacuate __________.
a) Immediately
b) As soon as you see others doing so
c) Before power fails
d) After you confirm it is not a false alarm
Immediately

86. A walk-through safety inspection is performed by the company’s _______.
a) Safety Officer
b) Safety Committee
c) Floor Supervisor
d) OSHA inspector
Safety Committee

87. If you notice that an air handling machine is making a noise you think might be abnormal what should you do?
a) Ignore it since you are not assigned to this machine
b) Contact the maintenance department
c) Assume the maintenance department will fix it when they can
d) Assume it is normal operation
Contact the maintenance department

88. Everyone is responsible for___________.
a) Giving employees performance reviews
b) Recording SPC data
c) Performing quality system audits
d) accident prevention
accident prevention

89. The company handbook usually contains policies on a wide variety of topics, including ________________.
a) Safety regulations
b) Specific job task descriptions
c) Names of team members
d) Employee hire dates
Safety regulations

90. A safety team may decide a safety audit is required
a) An accident occurs involving an oil spill
b) OSHA is planning a visit
c) The team’s budget is being considered for reduction
d) A new person is hired
An accident occurs involving an oil spill

91. The team leader or supervisor should immediately be told of __________.
a) Your desire to change jobs.
b) Any industrial injuries
c) Your interest in attending college classes
d) Stable machine operation.
Any industrial injuries

92. What is a symptom of drug or alcohol use
a) Decreased absenteeism
b) Improved interpersonal interactions
c) Clear speech
d) Decreased productivity
Decreased productivity.

93. OSHA conducts inspections for a number of reasons, which are categorized into five priority levels according to their severity. A Priority one indicates _______________.
a) Employee complains of alleged violations or unhealthy conditions
b) Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm.
c) After any accidental death, or when an accident causes five or more employees to be injured
d) Follow-up To ensure that a noted imminent hazard has been removed from the workplace
Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm

94. Potential hazards associated with equipment should be identified when ______.
a) The engineer does not know what heshe is doing
b) Bidding on jobs
c) new equipment is being designed for a process.
d) Identifying cost of labor
new equipment is being designed for a process

95. ______________ is the cause of many industrial accidents.
a) Carelessness
b) Sabotage
c) Re work
d) Adherence to outdated safety requirements
Carelessness

96. Hearing protection includes ear plugs, canal caps and ________.
a) Headphones
b) Ear muffs
c) Head bands
d) Ear wraps
Ear muffs

97. When working under equipment or personnel, _________.
a) Head protection is needed
b) Eye protection is needed
c) The use of fall arrest equipment is required
d) Entering plant production areas is prohibited
Head protection is needed

98. Welding creates a bright light that can damage the ________.
a) Eyes
b) Ears
c) Face
d) Hands
Eyes

99. Safety glasses with side shields should be used when working with a________ for additional eye protection.
a) A grinding wheel
b) Computers
c) A screwdriver
d) Other people
A grinding wheel

100. A ________ should be worn to protect the face from splashes or flying particles.
a) Welding mask
b) Goggles
c) Face shield
d) Safety glasses
Face shield

101. Personal protection devices, such as safety glasses and welding helmets, should be inspected ____________.
a) For an ASTM rating
b) For EPA compliance
c) To ensure that they are not damaged and have a proper fit
d) Bi-monthly
To ensure that they are not damaged and have a proper FIT

102. To protect the eyes from welding flash, welders must use ____________.
a) Safety glasses
b) Welding helmet
c) Hard hat
d) Welding curtain
Welding helmet

103. Safety glasses with side shields should be worn with _______ for additional eye protection.
a) Sunglasses
b) Shaded lens
c) Ear plugs
d) A welding helmet
A welding helmet

104. ________ are similar to safety glasses except they provide a tighter fit.
a) Face shields
b) Canal caps
c) Welding masks
d) Goggles
Goggles

105. A certification from a physician is required before ____________.
a) Using air breathing apparatus
b) Working out on a treadmill at the company fitness center
c) Operating a conveyor
d) Working in confined spaces
Using air breathing apparatus

106. OSHA has set permissible noise level at __ decibels for an eight-hour period.
a) 60
b) 40
c) 90
d) 120
90

107. OSHA provides regulations to limit the _____________.
a) Exposure to noise
b) Number of hours an employee can work
c) Speed of machinery in the plant
d) Waste products that can go in a sewer
Exposure to noise

108. In areas where noise levels are excessive, ______should be utilized.
a) Robots
b) Safety glasses
c) Hearing protection
d) White noise
Hearing protection

109. Earplugs should be replaced when they are no longer ________.
a) Covered by the warranty
b) Pliable
c) Rigid
d) Inflexible
Pliable

110. ___________ are cylindrical pieces of foam stamped from a foam sheet.
a) Disposable polyurethane foam plugs
b) Disposable PVC foam plugs
c) Banded ear plugs
d) Ear muffs
Disposable polyurethane foam plugs

111. The first step in inserting a foam earplug is to ____________.
a) Roll and compress the plug between your thumb and forefinger
b) Wet it slightly
c) Press it firmly into the ear canal
d) Flatten the plug with the heel of your hand
Roll and compress the plug between your thumb and forefinger

112. _______ wounds are caused by narrow sharp objects penetrating deep into the skin tissue.
a) Cut
b) Abrasion
c) Puncture
d) Chemical
Puncture

113. Screwdrivers are a frequent cause of injury to ________.
a) Hands
b) Eyes
c) Legs
d) Ears
Hands

114. To protect your hands, you should only wear gloves approved by ________.
a) STMA
b) ASTM
c) DOT
d) OSHA
ASTM

115. Working around live electrical circuits requires a worker to wear gloves approved by ________.
a) ASTM
b) OSHA
c) FDA
d) DOT
ASTM

116. _______ gloves protect against electrical surges.
a) Cloth
b) Heat resistant
c) Insulated
d) Metal mesh
Insulated

117. Sharp objects can pierce the ______ of the shoe resulting in puncture wounds of the foot.
a) Heel
b) Sole
c) Uppers
d) Steel toe
Sole

118. Leather shoes are worn during welding to protect the feet from __________.
a) Sharp metal on the floor
b) Extreme temperature
c) UV radiation
d) from stray drops of molten metal.
from stray drops of molten metal

119. ________ shoes provide foot protection against falling objects.
a) Reinforced
b) Electrostatic dissipating
c) Rubber
d) Steel toe
Steel toe

120. One of the most common causes of head injuries is _______.
a) Chemical splashes
b) Toxic vapors
c) Banging your head into an unseen object
d) Welding splatter
Banging your head into an unseen object

121. Painting on a hard hat should be avoided because it might _________.
a) Cover any safety labels
b) React with the composition of the headwear and reduce its effectiveness
c) Be offensive to other workers
d) Reduce the thermal properties of the headwear
React with the composition of the headwear and reduce its effectiveness

122. Class G hard hats are _______ and provide some protection from contact with live electrical circuits. They are tested at 2200 volts.
a) Non-conductive
b) Conductive
c) Called bump hats
d) Designed for electrical trades
Non-conductive

123. __________ hazards include anything that can cause cuts, scrapes, punctures or impacts.
a) Fire
b) Chemical
c) Mechanical
d) Hazardous material
Mechanical

124. Clothing worn to protect against electrical shock must be _________.
a) Non-conductive
b) Conductive
c) Flame resistant
d) Designed for the voltage to which they will be exposed
Non-conductive

125. _________ are commonly made from leather and designed to go over a welder’s pants to protect their legs from molten metal or sparks.
a) Coveralls
b) Sleeves
c) Chaps
d) Pant guards
Chaps

126. _____ are formed when a solid such as a metal, is heated above its boiling point and then condensed in cool air.
a) Dusts
b) Gases
c) Vapors
d) Fumes
Fumes

127. _________ is the most common way for a chemical to enter the body.
a) Electrical current
b) Inhalation
c) Chemical
d) Water
Inhalation

128. OSHA defines air as oxygen-deficient if it contains less than ______ percent oxygen.
a) 20.2
b) 15.8
c) 28
d) 19.5
19.5

129. Before workers work in areas that require ________, they should have a medical exam to determine if they have a pre-existing health problem.
a) Safety glasses
b) Ear plugs
c) Respirators
d) Hard hats
Respirators

130. An employee should not enter a confined space that has an oxygen level less than ______.
a) 17 percent
b) 20 percent
c) 19.5 percent
d) 80 percent
19.5 percent

131. A _________ respirator only covers the nose and mouth of the user.
a) Quarter- mask
b) Half-mask
c) Full-mask
d) Hood
Quarter- mask

132. _______ respirators purify the air by filtering the air to reduce the concentration of substances such as dusts, mists and fumes.
a) Particulate removing
b) Vapor orGas Removing
c) Atmosphere-supplying
d) Self-Contained
Particulate removing

133. When working in areas that have extreme respiratory conditions, such as a confined space with toxic fumes, a ________ apparatus should be used.
a) HEPA filter
b) Disposable mask
c) Self-contained breathing apparatus
d) Full mask
Self-contained breathing apparatus

134. To check for leaks on a half-mask respirator when inhaling, cover the _______with the palms of your hands.
a) Exhalation port
b) Cartridges
c) Directional valve
d) Sides of the mask
Cartridges

135. A class C fire is one that consists of burning _____________.
a) Exotic flammable metals
b) Live electrical lines or equipment
c) Paper, wood and rubber
d) Chemicals
Live electrical lines or equipment

136. ________ fires are considered Class C fires.
a) Paper
b) Wood
c) Electrical
d) Smokeless
Electrical

137. Open flames should not be used in a dust area because of ___________.
a) Cleanliness
b) Sanitation
c) Possible ignition or explosion
d) Clogs breathing apparatus
Possible ignition or explosion

138. To allow for proper fire protection, which of the following is important? ______.
a) Air hoses properly stored
b) Door ways are closed and paths be clear
c) Safety manuals be available
d) Windows be closed
Door ways are closed and paths be clear

139. To avoid potential fires, combustible materials must be kept a minimum of __ feet from any potential ignition sources.
a) 100
b) 35
c) 10
d) 65
35

140. In an area that consistently contains dust, or other combustibles you should _______.
a) Use kerosene heaters
b) Allow smoking
c) Allow use of flames or other ignition sources
d) Remove all sources of ignition
Remove all sources of ignition

141. In the event of a fire, it is important to _____________.
a) Panic
b) Maintain a clear path to the exit
c) Prop fire doors open to make getting people out a faster process
d) Store combustible materials in the stairwell, away from the fire
Maintain a clear path to the exit

142. To prevent fire hazard, the following action should be taken. __________.
a) Keep new rags nearvy
b) Wipe up water spills promptly
c) Clean metal chips from a machine
d) Dispose of rags promptly
Dispose of rags promptly

143. An odor is added to _______ so that it is detected easier.
a) Natural gas
b) Oxygen
c) Cleaning fluids
d) Paint
Natural gas

144. The dates and charge on the fire extinguishers should be checked _______.
a) During the yearly fire system inspection
b) When the fire alarm control panel (FACP) is repaired
c) When performing a weekly inspection of fire system
d) When inspecting the fire sprinkler system
When performing a weekly inspection of fire system

145. A person should work on a live electrical circuit ______.
a) Never
b) Only when it is believed safe to do so
c) Whenever it is convenient
d) Always
Never

146. A fire extinguisher operates by removing the fuel, heat, or oxygen from the fire. ________.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
TRUE

147. Someone throws a cigarette into a trash can and the contents of the can catch on fire. The employee that notices the fire should ____________.
a) Sound the alarm
b) Drag the trash can outside
c) Attempt to extinguish the fire with a Type 3 fire extinguisher
d) Place the lid on the trash can to smother the fire
Sound the alarm

148. When a small fire is noticed near a cabinet of flammable materials you should first ___________.
a) Remove the flammable materials to a safe place
b) Run to the nearest phone to call for help
c) Sound the alarm
d) Put it out with a portable fire extinguisher
Sound the alarm

149. The ______ fire extinguisher does not leave a harmful residue and is sometimes used to put out fires on planes and expensive equipment.
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water-Pressurized
c) Halon
d) Powder infused
Halon

150. A paper fire can be safely extinguished using a Class ___ fire extinguisher.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
A

151. A CO2 fire extinguisher is used for which type of fire? ______.
a) Magnesium
b) Paper
c) Electrical
d) Wood
Electrical

152. Which of the following is considered an electrical hazard? ___________.
a) Working on a known dead circuit
b) Using a properly grounded electrical cord
c) Using circuit protection devices
d) Overloading a circuit
Overloading a circuit

153. When performing work on equipment you should __________.
a) Only work on live electrical circuits when necessary to avoid disrupting production
b) Only use lockouttagout procedures if the shift will change during the repair and a new operator will arrive
c) Just tag out the equipment and not use your lock to save time
d) Never work on a live electrical circuit
Never work on a live electrical circuit

154. An electrical lockouttagout system is designed _________________.
a) Deter a criminal
b) Keep unauthorized people from using certain electrical equipment
c) Mark a circuit that is not up to code
d) Prevent someone from energizing a circuit that is dangerous or being worked on
Prevent someone from energizing a circuit that is dangerous or being worked on

155. When performing an electrical lockouttagout, the last thing the worker should do is _____________.
a) Put the lock on the disconnect
b) Put the tag on the disconnect
c) Test the locked out equipment for power
d) Leave the key in the lock for others
Test the locked out equipment for power

156. The three main components of an electrical lockouttagout are: ___________.
a) Lock, switch, tag
b) Lock, tag, key
c) Lock, hasp, tag
d) Hasp, tag, key
Lock, hasp, tag

157. First aid is _____________________.
a) the immediate care given to an injured person until professional medical personnel arrive
b) calming the victim
c) helping out.
d) Doing the best to calm person
the immediate care given to an injured person until professional medical personnel arrive

158. First aid training enables a person to provide _____________.
a) help with safety rules.
b) Look for violations.
c) Working faster
d) First aid until professional medical help arrives
First aid until professional medical help arrives

159. The action taken to treat an injury until medical help arrives is called ____________.
First aid

160. A blood borne pathogen is transmitted _____________.
by coming in to contact with blood or other bodily fluids.

161. Blood or other bodily fluids are a source of transmission from one person to another of
blood borne pathogens.

162. An effective way to kill any potential blood borne pathogen is to ____________.
clean the blood spill with a 10% solution of bleach and water

163. If you are the only trained first aid provider at the scene of an accident you should ________________.
ask a bystander to call 911 while you attend to the victim

164. When attending to a person with possible broken bones you should ____________.
only move the person if they are in immediate danger

165. Call 911 immediately if you notice that another worker has ___________.
swallowed a cleaning chemical

166. Cold water is the best treatment for _________.
minor burns

167. If a person has swallowed a chemical you should ______________.
call 911 or poison control and tell them what chemical was taken

168. To treat a minor burn you ______________.
should run the burn under cold water

169. The first thing to do when treating someone for electric shock the first thing you should do is ______________.
remove the source of the electric shock

170. When responding to a workplace accident do not __________.
a) Look for clues that caused the accident
b) Ask bystanders for help
c) Put yourself in danger
d) Call 911
Put yourself in danger

171. A safety officer should place ______________by the telephones in case they are needed.
a) Vendor’s telephone number
b) Financial officer’s telephone number
c) Emergency telephone numbers
d) Team leaders’ telephone numbers
Emergency telephone numbers

172. An eyewash station is required within a 10 second walk of workers who use __________.
a) Acids or caustics on a daily basis
b) Cutting tools
c) Packaging materials or metal
d) Any type of machinery
Acids or caustics on a daily basis

173. A suitable eyewash station should provide continuous water flow for at least _______.
a) 10 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 40 minutes
15 minutes

174. Emergency showers and eyewashes must be available where ______ are used.
a) Bases
b) Fluids
c) Caustics or acids
d) Power tools
Caustics or acids

175. If a worker gets a caustic chemical in his or her eyes, what is the first action that should be taken? ____________.
a) Call the safety manager
b) Look up the MSDS sheet
c) Flush eys with water
d) Call a doctor
Flush eys with water

176. Tetanus is a possible result from ______________.
a) Puncture wounds from a nail
b) Broken bones
c) Second hand smoke
d) Sprains
Puncture wounds from a nail

177. If you have even a minor accident at work, you should ______________.
a) Contact your supervisor immediately
b) Contact the company management
c) Contact human resources
d) Contact OSHA
Contact your supervisor immediately

178. Keeping your workbench clean and following all safety rules are essential to ___________.
a) Qualify for the weekly bonus
b) Proper SPC procedures
c) Ensure FCC compliance
d) Maintaining a safe work area
Maintaining a safe work area

179. Ergonomics guidelines help create a well-designed work setting that will _______.
a) Increase machine reliability
b) Increase the market share of the product
c) Reduce worker fatigue
d) Reduce non-compliant parts
Reduce worker fatigue

180. A worker should clean up a small spot of liquid on the floor immediately if the liquid is ________.
a) Oil
b) Caustic chemical
c) Radioactive
d) Explosive
Oil

181. Which of the following situations is considered a safety hazard in the plant?
a) Maintain operating at maximum speed
b) Oil spots on the floor.
c) Pallet with boxes stored on it
d) Workstation with wear on the work surface.
Oil spots on the floor

182. Oil spots should be cleaned ____________.
a) Immediately
b) Within 24 hours
c) By Hazmat teams
d) By maintenance people only
Immediately

183. To prevent a worker from being injured in a fall, ______________.
a) Training on proper falling should be provided
b) Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately
c) The worker should wear protective padding
d) First responders should be immediately available
Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately

184. Pedestrian walkway areas that need to be cleanable should not have ___________.
a) Handrails
b) Painted surfaces
c) Lines
d) Added traction
Added traction

185. Mirrors help make a safe pedestrian walkway by ______________.
a) Aiding in backing vehicles
b) Reflecting light into dark areas
c) Helping control blind spots
d) Allowing workers to check their clothing
Helping control blind spots

186. A wet floor is a common cause of ______________.
a) Fall accidents
b) Reduced machine productivity
c) Employee illness
d) Forklift skid accidents
Fall accidents

187. A worker should use pedestrian walkways and doors when _____________.
a) To keep from getting lost
b) When forklifts are operating in the area
c) To meet OSHA requirements
d) To reach your destination in the least time
When forklifts are operating in the area

188. It is especially important that employees stay within marked pedestrian aisles when walking through a plant if ________________.
a) Machines are operating at peak efficiency
b) Forklifts are being used
c) Trucks are docked at the shipping department
d) There are many people walking through the plant
Forklifts are being used

189. Safe work ________ are a means of ensuring all precautions have been taken when a worker has to perform tasks in a situation that may endanger his or her health.
a) Permits
b) Records
c) Habits
d) Passports
Records

190. Plant personnel should receive training and have proper authorization before ______.
a) Entering a permit-required confined space
b) Entering office areas
c) Taking a course at a community college
d) Leaving work
Entering a permit-required confined space

191. Outside contractors who are hired to clean permit-required confined spaces must provide _____________.
a) Nothing
b) History of similar work done
c) Insurance
d) Proof of certification as certified entry personnel
Proof of certification as certified entry personnel

192. Only employees who are authorized and trained are allowed to __________.
a) Enter a permit-required confined space
b) Use the washroom
c) Identify safety hazards
d) Participate in an evacuation drill
Enter a permit-required confined space

193. Licensure or certification is required ___________.
a) To perform a lock out tag out
b) To enter a confined space
c) To participate in hazardous material training
d) To perform equipment maintenance
To enter a confined space

194. Because of toxic vapors, use of a breathing apparatus ____________.
a) Is required when working in identified confined spaces
b) Is required when working alone
c) Is required whenever fireproof protective clothing is also required
d) Is required by a physician
Is required when working in identified confined spaces

195. Which device of the following requires a certified welder and re-certification of the device after the weld? ______________.
a) Pressure rated devices
b) Oil tanks
c) Frames with seams over 5 inches
d) Automobile frames
Pressure rated devices

196. Ergonomics guidelines help create a well-designed work setting that will_______ .
a) Increase machine reliability
b) Increase the market value of the product
c) Reduce worker fatigue
d) Reduce non-conforming parts
Reduce worker fatigue

197. Adapting the work area to fit the person to reduce stress is called ________.
a) Environmental adaptation
b) Ego
c) Ergonomics
d) Excessive
Ergonomics

198. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by _________.
a) Tight fitting clothing
b) Repetitive movements
c) Allergy to being exposed to fish
d) Extended reach movement
Repetitive movements

199. Achieving a match between the worker, task, tools and environment is called ______.
a) Task matching
b) Adaptation
c) Smart hiring
d) Worker-task fit
Worker-task fit

200. A worker should always place both feet shoulder width apart and bend at the knees before _____________.
a) Starting up a machine
b) Sitting on a forklift
c) Looking under a machine for a problem
d) Reaching down to pick up a heavy object
Reaching down to pick up a heavy object

201. You should always use your legs when ___________.
a) Lifting heavy objects
b) Starting up a machine
c) Reaching for a part in a machine
d) Pushing the emergency stop button
Lifting heavy objects

202. Back injuries are most commonly caused by ___________.
a) Improper lifting
b) Repetitive operations
c) Material falling from the ceiling
d) Backing into a machine
Improper lifting

203. Using your legs when lifting objects will help prevent ______ injuries.
a) Back
b) shoulder
c) Neck
d) Foot
Back

204. While moving a load, turning at the waist will ______________.
a) Reduce the amount of time required
b) Provide good exercise
c) Increase the chance of back injury
d) Help balance the load
Increase the chance of back injury

205. To protect your back during lifting, you should place your feet shoulder width apart, __________ and then grasp and lift the object.
a) Bend at the waist
b) Place one knee on the ground
c) Squat down with your feet on either side of the object
d) Bend at the knees
Bend at the knees

206. A platform with a height above 10 feet requires ______________.
a) Four feet high railings
b) A non-slip surface
c) A handrail and toe board
d) A caution sign and handrail
A handrail and toe board

207. Scaffolding may be tied off on which of the following? __________
a) A heavy machine
b) A truss
c) Water pipes
d) Forklifts over ½ ton
A truss

208. Safety features on manlifts include ________, automatic brakes, and emergency shutoffs.
a) Welded seams
b) Belt tensioning devices
c) Chains
d) Guard railing
Guard railing

209. To operate a high lift, a worker must be a ______________.
a) Supervisor
b) Trained within 3 months of operation
c) A qualified operator
d) All of the above
A qualified operator

210. A power tool’s operation manual generally contains information about the __________.
a) Age of the tool
b) Teardown and repair instructions
c) Safety and operation rules
d) Cost of the tool
Safety and operation rules

211. A hazardous material may be defined as any material that ______________.
a) Creates a dangerous situation
b) Harms a person, property or the environment
c) Causes pain
d) Poses no serious health hazard
Harms a person, property or the environment

212. The idea that each person has the right to know about the hazardous substances with which they work is written in _______________.
a) The Hazardous Communication Standard
b) The Right to Know Law
c) The Hazardous Material Handling and Safety Act
d) The Constitution
The Hazardous Communication Standard

213. Hazardous material training should include which of the following? __________.
a) Statistical data collection
b) Histogram operation
c) JIT training
d) How to read MSDSs
How to read MSDSs

214. A vehicle is overloaded when _______________.
a) The weight is shifted too far to the front
b) The weight is placed too high
c) It carries too much weigh
d) It is at its capacity
It carries too much weigh

215. _________ should not be placed near an ignition source because it is explosive.
a) Propane
b) Oxygen
c) Argon
d) Neon
Propane

216. A physical hazard resulting from a substance that may spontaneously combust when exposed to air is called _____________.
a) Flammable
b) Pyrophoric
c) Compressed gas
d) Explosive
Pyrophoric

217. A(n) _________ is any organic compound containing two joined oxygen atoms. This substance is highly explosive and sensitive to shock.
a) Oxidizer
b) Explosive
c) Organic peroxide
d) Flammable
Organic peroxide

218. A _______ is a chemical that has been scientifically proven to cause acute or chronic health problems to the exposed person.
a) Physical hazard
b) Health hazard
c) Biological hazard
d) Radioactive chemical
Health hazard

219. A(n) ____________ is a labeling system designed to quickly and accurately identify hazardous materials.
a) DOT
b) MSDS
c) Hazardous Communications Standard
d) Hazardous material identification system
Hazardous material identification system

220. The ________ labeling system was designed to help firefighters in the event of an emergency.
a) DOT
b) NFPA
c) NCPA
d) UN
NFPA

221. The red diamond on the NFPA identification label represents ____________.
a) Reactivity level
b) Health hazard level
c) Flammability level
d) Personal protection required
Flammability level

222. An internationally recognized number assigned to a chemical for identification purposes is called the ____________.
a) United Nations Identification Number
b) International Standards Organization Number
c) United Parcel Service Tracking Number
d) Vendor Identification Number
United Nations Identification Number

223. In the United States, the _____________ requires placards representing the classification of hazards on board a truck transporting hazardous materials.
a) Central Intelligence Agency
b) Department of Transportation
c) Department of Social Services
d) Department of Agriculture
Department of Transportation

224. A flammable liquid falls into which category number in the DOT hazardous material identification system? ___
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
3

225. Hazardous materials being shipped internationally are given a four-digit number preceded by the letters ______ to identify the material being shipped.
a) HM (Hazardous Material)
b) HT ( Hazardous Transport)
c) UN (United Nations)
d) OT (Overseas Transport)
UN (United Nations)

226. It is important to clearly label the containers of _______ material before shipping.
a) Soap
b) Scrap steel
c) Plastic pellets
d) Flammable
flammable

227. The HMIS II is a labeling system developed by the NPCA and is represented by __________.
a) A diamond broken down into four smaller diamonds of blue, red, white, and yellow
b) Four colored bars, blue, red, orange, and white.
c) A single diamond with classification number of the hazard
d) Sheet containing first aid information
Four colored bars, blue, red, orange, and white

228. If safe handling information about a chemical cannot be found on its chemical label, its _____ should be checked.
a) MSDS
b) EPA label
c) Chemical composition
d) Toxicity label
MSDS

229. The _______ identifies chemicals and sets limits for their use.
a) HAZMAT
b) DOT
c) MSDS
d) OSHA
MSDS

230. The amount of exposure to a chemical without the unreasonable risk of injury is listed on the MSDS as the ___________.
a) MXT (Maximum eXposure Time)
b) TLV (Threshold Limit Value)
c) MCE (Maximum Chemical Exposure)
d) TOE (Time of Exposure)
TLV (Threshold Limit Value)

231. The PEL (Permissible exposure Limit) for exposure to hazardous substances are set by _________.
a) OSHA
b) EPA
c) NAFTA
d) FDA
OSHA

232. MSDS sheets contain information regarding first aid, the manufacturer, and proper personal protection equipment for use. __________
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
TRUE

233. The_______ is a guideline published by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists and outlines how much of a particular chemical a worker can be exposed to without an unreasonable health risk.
a) Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
b) Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
c) Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS NO.)
d) Poison Control Center Limit (PCCL)
Threshold Limit Value (TLV)

234. An employer is responsible for having an MSDS sheet for every chemical that __________.
a) They consider dangerous
b) They manufacture, sell or use
c) Is made
d) Is highly toxic
They manufacture, sell or use

235. An MSDS sheet should be locked away in a file and only available to a worker under certain conditions. __________
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
FALSE

236. When selecting a new chemical to use in the plant, its _______ should be reviewed as part of the decision making process.
a) EPA
b) MSDS
c) ANSI
d) ASTM
MSDS

237. Employers should provide training in the use of personal protective equipment ________.
a) To reduce the employee’s risk of hazardous material exposure
b) To qualify for OSHA grants
c) To place liability on the employee in case of hazardous chemical spills
d) Every 3 months
To reduce the employee’s risk of hazardous material exposure

238. The first step in safety handling hazardous chemicals is to ____________.
a) To know the hazards about the chemical you are handling
b) Protect yourself from exposure to the chemical
c) Protect the environment
d) Protect yours and others property
To know the hazards about the chemical you are handling

239. If a large quantity of liquid is spilled into a sanitary sewer, the worker that discovers it ____________.
a) Close off the sewer at the first junction
b) Take a water sample to determine the concentration levels
c) Ignore the problem to avoid getting co-workers in trouble
d) Notify their supervisor or team leader immediately so the appropriate authorities can be contacted
Notify their supervisor or team leader immediately so the appropriate authorities can be contacted

240. A well ventilated area designed for storage is the best place to store ________.
a) Office files
b) Used rags
c) Flammable materials
d) Spare parts
Flammable materials

241. It is especially important that proper labeling be used with all ____________.
a) Conveyors
b) Shipping pallets
c) Hazardous waste containers
d) Tool boxes
Hazardous waste containers

242. Hazardous materials of different types ______________.
a) Should be stored together neatly and in limited quantities
b) Should be stored separately
c) Should be placed on the shelf behind newer chemicals
d) Require no special accommodations
Should be stored separately

243. The Department of Transportation oversees the ___________.
a) Wearing of safety glasses in production areas
b) Licensing of fork lift drivers
c) Adherence to proper sound levels
d) Transportation of hazardous materials
Transportation of hazardous materials

244. The role of the ________ is to provide a safe, efficient and accessible transportation system to the American people.
a) Department of Homeland Security
b) Fraternal Order of Police
c) State Police
d) Department of Transportation
Department of Transportation

245. The materials loaded on to a truck and their potential hazards are identified by _______.
a) Shipping manifests
b) Bill of materials
c) Check lists
d) Routing sheets
Shipping manifests

246. The primary place to look for information regarding shipment of specific hazardous materials is the ___________.
a) Hazardous Materials Table
b) UPS Guide to Hazardous Material Shipment
c) The EPA Hazardous Material Shipment Guide
d) Hazardous and Toxic Chemical Guide
Hazardous Materials Table

247. A worker should not unload a truck __________________.
a) It is facing downhill
b) It has been sitting more than six hours
c) They do not know the driver
d) They do not understand a placard on the truck
They do not understand a placard on the truck

248. Hazardous waste is a substance that is no longer wanted that meets the criteria of a ________________.
a) Hazardous material
b) Explosive material
c) Saturated vapor
d) Flammable material
Hazardous material

249. To ensure safe transportation of hazardous materials, the EPA developed regulations jointly with the __________.
a) OSHA
b) DOT
c) AFSO
d) ATF
DOT

250. The advantage of ISO standards is that it provides a single set of guidelines that should be followed _______________.
a) across the continental United States
b) across the European Union
c) worldwide
d) in the western hemisphere
worldwide

251. Many products cannot be disposed of using a trash compactor before sending to a landfill. These include: fluorescent light bulbs, spray cans containing all or some of the product, and __________.
a) Paper
b) Liquid dyes
c) Metal soft drink cans
d) Plastic bottles
Liquid dyes

252. Dead lead-acid batteries from cars, trucks or industrial vehicles such as forklifts should be ___________.
a) Thrown into a landfill
b) Stored behind the business
c) Cut apart and disposed of in pieces
d) Given to a battery recycler
Given to a battery recycler

253. Waste materials such as scrap metal in an open yard are a possible ___________.
a) Inventory problem
b) Storm water contamination source
c) Hazardous material problem
d) Raw parts source
Storm water contamination source

254. Drains should be protected when unloading _________.
a) Oil
b) Soap
c) Metal
d) food
Oil

255. The environmental coordinator _____________.
a) Works directly for the EPA
b) Handles all requests for recycling
c) Should know the proper disposal procedures for waste material
d) Is always the leader of the plant’s emergency response team
Should know the proper disposal procedures for waste material

256. Regulations must always be followed when cleaning up ___________.
a) Small amounts of asbestos
b) Small amounts of oil
c) Any amount of grease
d) Any amount of water
Small amounts of asbestos

257. Safety guidelines do not permit ________ to be removed by unauthorized personnel.
a) Fiberglass insulation
b) Waste lubricant
c) Ferrous metals
d) Asbestos
Asbestos

258. __________is a silvery liquid that when spilled emits an extremely toxic vapor into the air.
a) Mercury
b) Asbestos
c) Silver
d) Cordite
Mercury

259. The emergency response team should be notified immediately if you observe a(n) __________.
a) Inefficient work process
b) Machine guard that needs repair
c) Employee showing up late
d) Hazardous material spill
Hazardous material spill

260. When storing lubricants, never _______________.
a) Store lubricants with other flammable materials
b) Prohibit smoking in or around the area
c) Have water hoses available
d) Use explosion proof lighting
Store lubricants with other flammable materials

261. The reason that grease is not recycled like oil ________________.
a) It is not cost efficient
b) It is very difficult to remove the impurities
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A or B
Both A and B

262. One of the simplest, but slowest methods of recycling oil is ___________.
a) Straining
b) Filtering
c) Centrifuge
d) Gravity separation
Gravity separation

263. Used oil should be __________.
a) Sold as fuel oil
b) Collected by a local environmental service
c) Pumped into the nearest sewer
d) Burned
Collected by a local environmental service

264. When operating machinery, always wear __________ to protect your eyes.
a) Sunglasses
b) Safety glasses with side shields
c) A welding mask
d) Netting
Safety glasses with side shields

265. Loose fitting sleeves is a safety violation for ____________.
a) Managers
b) Machine operators
c) Postal workers
d) OSHA inspectors
Machine operators

266. One of the best ways to learn how to operate an unfamiliar machine is to ________.
a) Observe an experienced operator
b) Make sure guards are in place
c) Just do it
d) take it apart, and put it back together
Observe an experienced operator

267. The only person that should turn on a piece of machinery is the __________.
a) The supervisor
b) The assigned operator
c) A co-worker
d) A licensed professional
The assigned operator

268. In terms of safety, everyone is responsible for reporting ___________.
a) Unclean areas
b) Unsupervised labor
c) Lazy employees
d) Improperly guarded equipment
Improperly guarded equipment

269. A worker should immediately lockout a machine if he or she finds ___________.
a) Guard has been bypassed
b) Machine is about to fail but is not producing bad parts
c) Machine is running inefficiently
d) Nearby machine has failed
Guard has been bypassed

270. When drilling a hole in a part using a drill press, ________________.
a) Always firmly clamp the part
b) Wear loose clothing
c) Hold the part by hand
d) Use motor oil as a lubricant
Always firmly clamp the part

271. Machine guards that require the operator to be able to see the process should be made from _________ to protect the worker in case it breaks.
a) Plate glass
b) Safety glass
c) Opaque glass
d) Window glass
Safety glass

272. A(n) _________ machine guard prevents a machine from turning on if the guard is not in place.
a) Fixed
b) Interlocked
c) Adjustable
d) Automatic
Interlocked

273. A(n)__________ interlock physically prevents a machine’s operation when the guard is out of place.
a) Hydraulic
b) Electrical
c) Mechanical
d) Pneumatic
Mechanical

274. The components NOT usually used to prevent entry into a machine during operation are ___________.
a) Magnetic sensors and capacitive sensors
b) Regulators and valves
c) Limit switches and photocells
d) Guards and light curtains
Regulators and valves

275. Presence sensing is one type of _____________.
a) Emergency stop control
b) Interlock
c) Guard
d) Release system
Emergency stop control

276. Which agency suggests that a worker inspect and test all equipment, assuming all to be energized until proven de-energized? ___________
a) EPA
b) OSHA
c) UAW
d) ANSI
OSHA

277. A lockouttagout system _______________________.
a) Prevents a piece of machinery from being energized while maintenance is being performed on it
b) Allows unauthorized
c) Use of important machinery
d) Allows use by only trained personnel
Prevents a piece of machinery from being energized while maintenance is being performed on it

278. The procedure by which each person places hisher own lock on a piece of equipment before performing work on it is called ___________.
a) OSHA lockout
b) Lockout tagout
c) Lockout
d) Tagging out
Lockout

279. Working areas at 6 feet or higher require ___________.
a) Fall protection
b) Two people working together
c) Ladder
d) Lockout tagout
Fall protection

280. You should never _____________ because it might cause damage.
a) Operate a machine at peak rated speeds
b) Use compressed air to clean clothing
c) Clean with water
d) Lubricate bearings on a regular basis
Use compressed air to clean clothing

281. As a safety precaution, which of these should be chained to a rigid fixture? ___________.
a) A compressed gas cylinder
b) A forklift
c) A drill press
d) A welder
A compressed gas cylinder

282. One or more hoses crossing a main walkway ____________.
a) Are not acceptable
b) Are permissible if they are taped down
c) Must be rated to withstand being run over by a fork lift without rupturing
d) Must be color coded to indicate the material they contain
Are not acceptable

283. If an operator does not test equipment after it is locked out ___________.
a) It does not matter because the lockout prevents energizing the power
b) The circuit will not operate
c) They should apply a tag saying so
d) They should be retrained
They should be retrained

284. Line breaking procedures should include de-energizing lines, testing prior to start-up and _____________.
a) Filling oil tanks
b) Adding quick connects
c) Correct color coding
d) All valves are closed and locked out using lockouttagout procedures
All valves are closed and locked out using lockouttagout procedures

285. The ________ is the part of a personal fall arrest system that attaches to the building structure.
a) Shock absorber
b) Deceleration device
c) Lifeline
d) Harness
Lifeline

286. Ground fault protection ensures that hand tools _____________.
a) Receive the correct current
b) Have a protection from electric shock
c) Do not exceed the proper load
d) Are economical to operate
Have a protection from electric shock

287. When using an extension ladder, the distance the foot of the ladder is set from the house should be about_________ the height of the extension.
a) 14
b) 12
c) 13
d) 23
14

288. When using a cutting tool, always _____________.
a) Cut towards the body
b) Cut across the body
c) Cut away from the body
d) Cut with both hands
Cut away from the body

289. The 3 prongs of a 110-volt power tool’s cord perform what purpose? __________.
a) Two of them conduct electricity and the third holds the plug in the outlet
b) Two of them are for AC current and the third is used for DC current
c) One is hot, one is neutral and one is the cheater
d) One is the hot, one is the neutral and one is the ground
One is the hot, one is the neutral and one is the ground

290. A ladder should extend at least____ feet above its point of contact with the roof.
a) 1 ½
b) 3
c) 6
d) 0
3

291. Gloves and safety glasses are necessary when working with ______________.
a) Sharp or rough sheet metal
b) Office equipment
c) Hammers
d) Slippery materials
Sharp or rough sheet metal

292. It is acceptable to remove another employee’s lockout lock __________.
a) When the employee who applied the lock left without removing it
b) After attempting to contact the employee
c) With permission from the employee who applied the lock
d) Only after all of the above have been done
Only after all of the above have been done

293. Steam, hydraulic, spring tension, and compressed gases are all examples of ______.
a) Vibrational
b) Kinetic energy
c) Dangerous energy
d) Pinch points
Dangerous energy

294. When using an electric sander be sure to _____________.
a) Wear respiratory protection
b) Wear gloves
c) Wear long sleeves
d) Have a vacuum cleaner handy
Wear respiratory protection

295. Compressed ___ can be used for cleaning work surfaces as long as the dead-headed pressure does not exceed 30 psi.
a) Acetylene
b) Air
c) Propane
d) Oxygen
Air

296. Effective training in air powered tools helps employees ______________.
a) Recover from accidents
b) Clean work area with compressed air
c) Cross train jobs
d) Avoid work hazards
Avoid work hazards

297. A step ladder is sometimes referred to as a(n) ____________.
a) Extension ladder
b) A-frame ladder
c) Multi-purpose ladder
d) Straight ladder
A-frame ladder

298. When using pneumatic tools _______________.
a) Place hoses across walkways as needed
b) Use the compressed air to clean clothing and skin
c) Do not use compressed air to clean clothing or skin
d) Use the maximum psi available
Do not use compressed air to clean clothing or skin

299. After a regulator is installed on an oxygen cylinder, the cylinder valve should always be _____________.
a) Opened all the way to prevent leakage around the valve
b) Opened slightly to prevent leakage around the valve
c) Transported with the regulator in place
d) Stored on its side
Opened all the way to prevent leakage around the valve

300. When performing a lockouttagout procedure you should ________________.
a) Apply a lock that every worker has a key for
b) Apply your own lock, tag, and test for power
c) Apply a tag, lock and call your supervisor
d) Leave the key in the lock in case someone needs to use the equipment
Apply your own lock, tag, and test for power

301. Never use a hand tool _____________.
a) To cut steel
b) When a power tool can be used
c) For anything other than its intended purpose
d) To remove excess material
For anything other than its intended purpose

302. A pneumatic lockouttagout uses a __________ to prevent use
a) Lockable valve
b) Switch
c) Pressure relieving cylinder
d) Saddle cut switch
Lockable valve

303. Always face the ladder when ________________.
a) Climbing, and face away when descending
b) Descending, and face away when climbing
c) When climbing and descending
d) Climbing with your hands full
When climbing and descending

304. You should wear gloves when handling sheet metal because _____________.
a) Sheet metal is slippery and can be damaged easily
b) Sheet metal is very sharp and may cut you
c) Sheet metal is very dirty
d) sheet metal is highly toxic
Sheet metal is very sharp and may cut you

305. All electrical circuits should be de-energized before maintenance by ________to prevent accidents.
a) Pushing emergency stops
b) Using lockout procedures
c) Unplugging all machines
d) Deactivating the circuit breaker
Using lockout procedures

306. Stamps on the body of compressed gas cylinders indicate ______________.
a) Replacement costs
b) Temperature requirements
c) Expiration date
d) the safety test date
the safety test date

307. A person should always face the ladder _______________.
a) With no exceptions
b) Unless the load being carried requires them to lean back against the ladder for support
c) Unless the ladder is at an angle greater than 15 degrees
d) Unless it is a locking-type ladder
With no exceptions

308. A bucket should be used to ________________.
a) Carry finished parts
b) Remove trash
c) Carry tools
d) Transfer tools up and down a ladder
Transfer tools up and down a ladder

309. Interrupting the power circuit at the motor disconnect is the only reliable way to ____.
a) Satisfy OSHA
b) Safely ground a motor
c) Turn off a motor
d) Lock out a motor
Lock out a motor

310. The highest load rating a ladder may have is ___.
a) Type II
b) Type IA
c) Type IAA
d) Type A
Type IAA

311. The document that identifies chemicals and sets limits for their use is called a ____________________.
a) OSHA safety data sheet
b) Hazardous material data sheet
c) Material Safety Data sheet
d) Chemical safety data sheet
Material Safety Data sheet

The use of eye protection and proper electrical grounding are important when ____________.
a) Using power tools
b) Working with hammers
c) Flying
d) Painting with enamel
Using power tools

313. When using a power tool ________________.
a) Make sure all guards are in place
b) Defeat or remove the guards if necessary
c) Modify the tool to suit your needs
d) Unplug it first
Make sure all guards are in place

314. A single pry truck can be used to move a load ___________.
a) A great distance
b) A short distance
c) Up a steep slope
d) Through uneven terrain
A short distance

315. You should always know the _______ of any load you are going to move.
a) Weight
b) Cost
c) Origination
d) Manufacturer
Weight

316. When inserting a pry truck under a load, the lip of the pry truck should_____________.
a) Engage the load for half its’ length
b) Be clamped firmly to the load
c) Be greased to allow it to slip under the load
d) Engage the load as far as possible
Engage the load as far as possible

317. __________ is the act of securing a load to prepare it for a lifting operation.
a) Rigging
b) Shoring
c) Jibing
d) Traversing
Rigging

318. Attachment devices such as ____________ are used to connect the load to the sling and the sling to the lifting device.
a) Pressure fittings
b) Eyebolts and shackles
c) Socket head cap screws
d) Flanges
Eyebolts and shackles

320. The force created on a sling _________ as the angle of a sling’s legs decrease.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
d) Cancel out
Increase

321. When attempting to lift a long I-beam, use at least ____strap(s) that is (are) placed ____________.
a) One, 10 percent as wide as the beam
b) Two, placed on the ends
c) Two, placed equally from the center
d) Two, close together
Two, placed equally from the center

322. In which of the sling arrangements shown is sling 1 experiencing the greatest load.
Second example

323. When is it OK to use a hoist to lift something that weighs more that the rating on a hoist? ____________
a) When it does not exceed5 percent of capacity
b) Never
c) When the load is lifted carefully
d) When it does not exceed 10 percent of capacity
Never

324. Do not leave a load ________ while the hoist is unattended.
a) Sitting on crib blocks
b) Secured to a pallet
c) Attached to the sling
d) Suspended
Suspended

325. The safety devices on an electric hoist include both mechanical and electrical _________protection.
a) Overload
b) Gear reduction
c) Phasing
d) Reving
Overload

326. A(n) _________ crane is mounted between two overhead runways.
a) Boom
b) Jib
c) Overhead
d) Gantry
Overhead

327. Cranes can only be operated by a _________ operator.
a) Safety engineer
b) Fork lift truck driver
c) Supervisor
d) Certified crane operator
Certified crane operator

328. All load hoistmovements must be _____________________.
a) Smoothly without jerking or abrupt movements
b) Quickly to minimize the time required for material handling
c) Quickly to reduce the amount of time over aisle ways.
d) At the end of the shift to minimize the number of personnel around the lift site
Smoothly without jerking or abrupt movements

329. A _________ is a line consisting of a strap, chain or rope that is used to lift or pull a load.
a) Gantry
b) Sling
c) come along
d) Shackle
Sling

330. A _________ forklift is a powered industrial truck that the operator sits in and drives like a car.
a) SitDown
b) Standup
c) Walkie Platform Low Lift
d) Order Picker
SitDown

331. A forklift operator should maintain a distance of ___________ vehicle lengths from other powered industrial trucks.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
3

332. If the load being carried by the forklift obscures the operator’s forward view, the operator should _________________.
a) Stand up to see over the load
b) Lean out to the side
c) To see around the load
d) Look over their shoulder and drive in reverse
Look over their shoulder and drive in reverse

333. At intersections, a forklift driver should __________.
a) Drive quickly
b) Sound the horn
c) Flash the lights
d) Raise the load
Sound the horn

334. Before lifting a load with a forklift, the loads should be __________.
a) Inspected for damage
b) Strapped to the forklift
c) Tilted back
d) Tilted forward
Tilted back

335. If the load obscures the view forward, the operator should __________.
a) Reduce the load
b) Drive slowly
c) drive the forklift in reverse
d) lower the load
drive the forklift in reverse

336. Before operating a powered industrial truck, the__________ should be checked to ensure that they can stop the truck and or hold it in position.
a) Brakes
b) Forks
c) Cables
d) Mast
Brakes

false True or false, stimulation of skeletal muscle contraction is an action of a hormone. blood plasma What connective tissue typically delivers hormones to a target cell? WE WILL WRITE A CUSTOM ESSAY SAMPLE ON ANY TOPIC SPECIFICALLY FOR YOU …

CNO MISSION regulating nursing in the public interest 2 documents that provide the legislative framework for regulating nursing in Ontario: 1. Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 2. Nursing Act, 1991 WE WILL WRITE A CUSTOM ESSAY SAMPLE ON ANY TOPIC …

Nicotine is a ________. A) psychogenic drug B) stimulant C) narcotic D) depressant B) stimulant What is the largest single preventable cause of premature death in the United States? A) crack cocaine abuse B) cigarette smoking C) caffeine intoxication D) …

LOCATION: Outpatient, Hospital PATIENT: Tom White SURGEON: David Barton, MD RADIOLOGY: Morton Monson, MD PROCEDURE: Transesophageal echocardiogram INDICATIONS: Evaluation of the aortic valve considering the stenosis that was not well-documented angiographically PROCEDURE: The patient received 2 mg of Versed, and …

David from ajethno:

Hi there, would you like to get such a paper? How about receiving a customized one? Check it out https://goo.gl/chNgQy