Short Story Questions Anatomy and Physiology II Final

1) ________ occurs when carbon dioxide is eliminated faster than it is produced.
Respiratory alkalosis

2) The female hormone ________ seems to decrease sodium reabsorption, thus promoting sodium and water loss by the kidney.

3) The preferred intracellular negative ion is ________.
hydrogen phosphate

4) The most important ECF buffer of HCl is ________.
Sodium Bicarbonate

5) The most important hormone that regulates calcium ions in the body is ________.
PTH (parathyroid hormone)

6) Molecules that can act reversibly as acids or bases depending upon the pH of their environment are called ________.

7) The breakdown of phosphorus-containing proteins releases ________ acid.

8) Arterial blood pH below 7.35 is called ________.
acidemia or acidosis

9) ________ reduces blood pressure and volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and the retention of sodium ions and water.
Atrial natriuretic peptide

10) What provides the shortest-term mechanism for preventing acid-base imbalances in the body? The longest-term mechanism?
Chemical buffers act within a fraction of a second to resist a pH change. The longest-term mechanism is the kidney system, which ordinarily requires from several hours to a day or more to effect changes in blood pH.

11) What is the effect of acidosis on the body? Of alkalosis?
When the body is in acute acidosis, the nervous system becomes so severely depressed that the person goes into a coma and death soon follows. Alkalosis causes overexcitement of the nervous system. Characteristic signs include muscle tetany, extreme nervousness, and convulsions. Death often results from respiratory arrest.

12) Describe the mechanisms by which the kidneys remove hydrogen ions from the body.
Virtually all of the H+ that leaves the body in urine is secreted into the filtrate. The tubule cells, including collecting ducts, appear to respond directly to the pH of the ECF and to alter their rate of H+ secretion accordingly. The secreted H+ ions are obtained from the dissociation of carbonic acid within the tubule cells. For each H+ ion actively secreted into the tubule lumen, one sodium ion is reabsorbed into the tubule cell from the filtrate, thus maintaining the electrochemical balance.

13) Describe the influence of rising PTH levels on bone, the small intestine, and the kidneys.
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) activates osteoclasts that break down the bone matrix, resulting in the release of Ca2+ and PO43- to the blood. PTH enhances intestinal absorption of Ca2+ indirectly by stimulating the kidneys to transform vitamin D to its active form, which is necessary for calcium absorption by the small intestine. PTH increases the reabsorption of calcium by the renal tubules, which simultaneously decreases phosphate ion reabsorption.

14) When the blood becomes hypertonic (too many solutes), ADH is released. What is the effect of ADH on the kidney tubules?
The release of ADH causes the kidney tubules to reabsorb excess water, resulting in the excretion of concentrated urine.

15) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?
If the infant is uncomfortable and cries forcefully for long periods of time, this would be similar to hyperventilation. Hyperventilation would cause respiratory alkalosis because the infant is losing carbon dioxide rapidly.

16) How does the respiratory system influence the buffer systems of the body?
The respiratory system maintains a constant bicarbonate level in the bloodstream by outgassing carbon dioxide. In the event of a respiratory problem the bicarbonate system might not be a constant.

17) Identify and describe the operation of the three major chemical buffers of the body.
The bicarbonate buffer system (carbonic acid plus sodium bicarbonate) acts to tie up the hydrogen ions released by a strong acid, thus converting it to a weaker acid, which lowers the pH only slightly. For a strong base, the carbonic acid will be forced to donate more H+ to tie up the OH- released by the base, with the net result of replacement of a strong base by a weak one. The pH rise is very small. The phosphate buffer system, composed of the sodium salts of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate, acts in a similar fashion to the bicarbonate system. NaH2PO4 acts as a weak acid; Na2HPO4 acts as a weak base. Hydrogen ions released by strong acids are tied up in weak acids; strong bases are converted to weak bases. Amino acids of the protein buffer system release H+ when the pH begins to rise by dissociating carboxyl groups, or bind hydrogen ions with amine groups to form NH3+ when the pH falls.

18) When does a person experience greater thirst, during periods when ADH release is elicited or during periods when aldosterone release is elicited?
A person experiences greater thirst during periods when ADH release is elicited.

1) Only ________ muscle cells are always multinucleated.

2) Claudication might more simply be called ________.

3) The end of the muscle that typically moves when a muscle contracts is called the ________.

4) In the synaptic cleft of a neuromuscular junction, an enzyme called ________ is always present.

5) The time in which cross bridges are active is called the period of ________.

6) ________ (color) fibers are slow (oxidative) fibers.

7) Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch.

8) A smooth, sustained contraction is called ________.

9) Define physiologic muscle fatigue.
Fatigue occurs when ATP production fails to keep pace with ATP use even though the muscle still receives stimuli.

10) Compare red and white muscles relative to their speed of action and endurance.
Red muscles tend to have a slow (oxidative) rate and fatigue resistance, whereas white muscle cells have a fast (oxidative) rate and fatigue easily.

11) Briefly, what causes rigor mortis?
Following the death of an individual, ATP is rapidly consumed and cannot be replaced. Because cross bridge detachment and calcium active transport is ATP driven, calcium leakage from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes attachment of cross bridges, and lack of ATP prevents detachments.

12) What ultimately stops muscle stimulation when the motor neuron ceases firing?
The ultimate switch is the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. When the neuron stops releasing ACh, the muscle would not stop contracting if the acetylcholinesterase did not split the ACh into its two components, acetyl and choline, making them release their binding sites.

13) A long-distance runner is about to enter a 5-mile race. Beforehand, he spends several minutes warming up. During the warm-up period, the phenomenon of treppe is occurring in body muscles being used. What is treppe and why does it occur?
Treppe is the staircase phenomenon in which muscles increase their strength of contraction due to increased availability of calcium. Additionally, the increased warmth due to activity causes an increase in the efficiency of muscle enzyme systems.

14) Skeletal muscles have two special inclusions that help them perform their function of movement. What are the two special inclusions of skeletal muscle cells and how would they be useful to the cell?
Skeletal muscle cells require a lot of rapidly available fuel to burn in order to function properly. They also require a lot of oxygen to burn this fuel efficiently. Glycosomes store glycogen that can be quickly converted to glucose, which in turn can be burned to produce ATP. Myoglobin is a chemical much like hemoglobin in blood cells that can store large quantities of oxygen.

15) What are the parts of the skeletal muscle triad and what are their functions?
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a reservoir for calcium ions in the cell’s normal resting state. The T tubule is a fold in the cell membrane between the sarcoplasmic reticuli. When an impulse is activated by a motor neuron, the voltage-regulated change causes SR foot proteins to open Ca2+ channels. The calcium ions are flushed out where they interact with the troponin complex to initiate a contraction. Once the axon stops firing, the membrane polarity is quickly restored and the calcium ions are pulled off the troponin and attracted back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

16) Briefly explain the sources of energy for a one-minute sustained muscle contraction.
1. The first 4-6 seconds of energy come from stored ATP in the muscle cell.
2. 6-15 seconds of energy come from the transfer of creatine phosphate and ADP (which come from the first few seconds of burn) to form additional ATP.
3. 15-60 seconds of energy come from glycolysis, which by now has begun full production of ATP from glucose.

17) What are caveolae?
Folds on the surface of smooth muscle cells that correspond to T tubules in skeletal muscle cells.

18) How is it that norepinephrine (NE) can inhibit smooth muscle action in airways, yet stimulate contractions in smooth muscles everywhere else in the body?
Airway passages have smooth muscle cells that are unique in that they have two receptor sites on their outer membrane. One receptor site accepts ACh as the neurotransmitter. When excited it causes the smooth muscle to contract. The second site accepts NE and the inhibitory effect is that the ACh dilates the airway.

1) The heel bone is called the ________.

2) The lateral condyle of the femur articulates with the lateral condyle of the ________.

3) The medial condyle of the femur articulates with the medial condyle of the ________.

4) The largest foramen in the body is the ________ foramen.

5) The smallest short bone in the hand is the ________.

6) The styloid process of the ________ points to the thumb.

7) The large fossa on the anterior aspect of the scapula is the ________.
subscapular fossa

8) Only the ________ vertebrae have transverse foramina.

9) The ________ is the primary bone in the septum of the nose.

10) Your “cheekbone” is mostly formed from the ________ bone.

11) The ________ is a spinous process that is visible through the skin and can be used as a landmark for counting the vertebrae.
vertebra prominens

12) What is the function of the lumbar curvature?
It positions the weight of the trunk over the body’s center of gravity, thus providing optimal balance when standing.

13) Which vertebral curvature abnormality is the most serious? Why?
Scoliosis is the most serious abnormality, due to the pressure that can be placed on the lungs and resulting breathing difficulties.

14) What is the purpose of the vertebral curvatures?
Their purpose is to increase the resilience and flexibility of the spine, allowing it to function like a spring rather than a rigid rod.

15) Why is the area just distal to the tubercles of the humerus called the surgical neck?
This area is called the surgical neck because it is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus.

16) What are the fontanelles and what advantages do they confer on the fetus? The mother?
The fontanelles are regions of unossified, fibrous membrane in the skull allowing the cranium to grow. The flexibility they impart to the fetal skull helps to ease the delivery of the child.

17) Describe the composition of the intervertebral discs.
Intervertebral discs are composed of an inner semifluid nucleus pulposus, which gives the discs elasticity and compressibility, and a covering of fibrocartilage, the anulus fibrosus, which limits expansion and holds successive vertebrae together.

18) Describe the differences between the bones of the lower and upper limb and briefly state why these differences exist.
The lower limbs carry the weight of the body and are subjected to exceptional forces. These bones are thicker and stronger. The upper limb bones are adapted for flexibility and mobility and are therefore smaller and lighter.

19) How are the pectoral and pelvic girdles structurally different? How is this difference reflected in their functions?
The pectoral girdle moves freely across the thorax and allows the upper limb a high degree of mobility, while the pelvic girdle is secured to the axial skeleton to provide strength and support. This is why the glenoid cavity of the scapula is relatively shallow and the acetabulum of the pelvis is a deep socket.

20) How do the first two cervical vertebrae differ from other cervical vertebrae? What are their functions?
The atlas or C1 vertebra has no body. It articulates with the skull with large curved articular surfaces to allow the skull to rock in a “yes” motion. The axis or C2 vertebra has a projection called the dens that allows the axis to pivot, giving the head the “no” motion. The vertebral foramen of the atlas is enlarged so that when the head is pivoted in the “no” motion, the spinal cord can move.

21) Describe how the arches of the foot are maintained.
There are three arches: the medial and lateral longitudinal arches, and the transverse arch. Together they form a half-cone that distributes the weight of the body. They are maintained by the shape of the foot bones, strong ligaments, and by the pull of some tendons.

22) Which are the four major cranial sutures and between which bones are they found?
1. Coronal – parietal and frontal
2. Sagittal – between the parietal bones
3. Squamous – parietal and temporal
4. Lambdoidal – parietal and occipital

23) Which canal and three foramina are found going through the sphenoid bone?
1. Optical canal
2. Foramen rotundum
3. Foramen ovale
4. Foramen spinosum

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