NURSING Research Test 1

Guided by research questions and data are collected from a small number of subjects allowing an in depth study of phenomenon
Qualitative

Describes phenomena seeks to test hypothesis/ answer research questions using statistical methods
Quantitative

Meta-Synthesis
A synthesis of a number of qualitative articles on a focused topic using specific qualitative methodology.

Integrative review
Focused review and synthesis of the literature on a specific area that follows specific steps of literature integration and synthesis without statistical analysis.

Meta-analysis
Summarizes a number of studies focused on a topic using a specific statistical methodology to synthesize the findings in order to draw conclusions about the area of focus.

4 strategies for critical reading:
1. Preliminary
2. Comprehensive
3. Analysis
4. Synthesis

Preliminary
Familiarizing yourself with the content-skimming the content.

Comprehensive
Understanding the parts of the researcher’s purpose or intent.

Analysis
Understanding the parts of the study.

Synthesis
Understanding the whole article and each step of the research process in a study.

Levels of evidence:
1-7 (greatest to least)

Level 1
Systematic review or meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (RCTs)

Level 2
A well-designed RCT

Level 3
Quasiexperimental study
-Controlled trial WITHOUT randomization

Level 4
Single non-experimental study (case-control, correlational, cohort studies.

Level 5
Systematic reviews of descriptive and QUALITATIVE studies

Level 6
Single descriptive or QUALITATIVE studies

Level 7
Opinion of authorities and/or reports of expert committees.

What presents the idea that is to be examined in the study and is the foundation of the research study
The research question

What attempts to answer the research question
The hypothesis

What are the 4 components of clinical questions?
1. Population
2. Interventions
3. Comparison
4. Outcome

The aims or objectives the investigator hopes to achieve with the research, not the question to be answered.
The purpose

Is this directional or non-directional?
A relation exists between women’s reproductive, nutritional, and body composition, and activity factors and the amount of C-reactive protein in NAF.
Non-directional –indicates the presence of a relationship between variables, but it does not specify the anticipated direction of the relationship.

A statement about the expected relationship of the variables
Research or scientific hypothesis

States there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
Null hypothesis

3 Characteristics of a research question:
1. Clearly identifies variables
2. Specifies population
3. Implies possibility of empirical testing

Which variable has the presumed effect on the other variable?
Independent variable

Is often referred to as the consequence or the presumed effect that varies.
Dependent variable

Identify the independent/dependent variable: It might be assumed that the perception of pain intensity will vary in relation to a person’s gender.
Independent Variable: Gender
Dependent Variable: The perception of pain intensity

Correlational research question
Is there a relationship between X (independent variable) and y (dependent variable) in the specified population?

Comparative research question
Is there a difference in Y (dependent variable) between people who have X characteristic and those who did not have X characteristic?

Experimental research question
Is there a difference in Y (dependent variable) between group A who received X (independent variable) and group B who did not receive X?

Systematic and critical appraisal of the most important literature on a topic, is a key step in the research process that provides the basis of a research study.
Literature Review

An image or symbolic representation of an abstract idea.
Concept

Set of interrelated concepts, definitions and propositions that present a systematic view of phenomena of the purpose of explaining and making predictions about those phenomena.
Theory

This type of definition includes general meaning of a concept.

Ex: To walk from place-to-place

Conceptual definition

This type of definition includes the method used to measure the concept.
Ex: Taking 4 steps w/out assistance
Operational definition

PICO format to generate research questions for EBP
P: Problem/pt populations; specifically defined group
I: Intervention; what interventions or event will be studied?
C: Comparison of intervention: with what will the intervention be compared?
O: Outcome; what is the effect of the intervention?

When looking for systematic reviews what search engine should you use?
Cochrane review

Where can you find individual original (RCTs) studies?
Medline and CINAHL
(lower level of the information resource pyramid)
Randomized clinical trials

What should be your first choice when looking for theoretical, clinical or research articles?
Print resources-Refereed or peer-review journals.

Means that the journal has been submitted and reviewed by a panel of internal/external experts on the topic for possible publication.

What should be included in “scholarly literature”? (Select all that apply.)
A. Research reports reported in primary sources only
B. Conceptual and theoretical literature from primary sources only
C. Published and unpublished reports of research
D. Primary and secondary sources
C. Published and unpublished reports of research
D. Primary and secondary sources

Reviews of the literature are conducted for PURPOSES OF RESEARCH as well as for the CONSUMER OF RESEARCH. How are these reviews similar? (Select all that apply.)

A. Amount of literature required to be reviewed
B. Degree of critical reading required
C. Importance of conceptual literature
D. Purpose of the review

B: Degree of critical reading required
C: Importance of conceptual literature

What are characteristics of the literature review required for a quantitative research study? (Select all that apply.)
A. The review is exhaustive and must include all studies conducted in the area
B. Doctoral dissertations and masters’ theses are excellent sources of information
C. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable
D. Primary sources are not as important as secondary sources
B. Doctoral dissertations and masters’ theses are excellent sources of information

C. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable

Which of the following is an example of a
primary source in a research study?
A. A published commentary on the findings of another study
B. A doctoral dissertation that critiques all research in the area of attention deficit disorder
C. A textbook of medical-surgical nursing
D. A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases generated by the United States census
D. A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases generated by the United States census
Rationale (CORRECT): 4. This is a report of an original study, so it is the primary source of the study.

What is the best source to use when conducting a level I systematic meta-analysis of the literature?
A. An electronic database
B. Doctoral dissertations
C. The Cochrane Statistical Methods
C. The Cochrane Statistical Methods Group

When should a literature review be conducted after data are collected?
When a qualitative research design was used

What is a characteristic of an audio recording of an unpublished research study reported at a professional conference?
A. Databased literature
B. Secondary Sources
C. Are more difficult to analyze than written reports.
D. Are not useful because they are not published
A. Correct: Databased literature
Rationale (CORRECT): 1. Audio and video recordings of
research presentations are examples of databased literature.

What is the first step in the qualitative research process?
A. Data analysis
Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Data analysis is the sixth step in the qualitative research process.
B. Sample
C. Review of literature
D. Study design
A. Data analysis: Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Data analysis is the sixth step in the qualitative research process.
B. Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Sampling is the third step in the qualitative research process.
C. Review of literature is the 1st step in the qualitative research process.
D. Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. The study design is the second step in the qualitative research process.

Which mode of clinical application for qualitative research is considered to be the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient?
A. Insight or empathy
B. Anticipatory guidance
C. Assessment of status or progress
D. Coaching
A. Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Insight or empathy is not considered to be the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient.
B. Correct: Anticipatory guidance is the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient
C. Incorrect: Assessment of status or progress is not considered to be the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient.
D. Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Coaching is not considered to be the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient.

Structure of concepts and/or theories that provides the basis for development of research questions or hypotheses
Conceptual or theoretical framework
-For example in a study investigating the effect of a psychoeducational telephone counseling intervention on the quality of life (QoL) for breast cancer survivors, QOL was the conceptual framework used ot guide the identification and development of the study.
-QOL was conceptually defined as “a multidimensional construct consisting of four domains: physical, psychosocial, social and spiritual well-being.”
-Each domain contributes to overall quality of life and was operationally defined as the score on the Quality of Life-Breast cancer survivors measurement instrument.

What is the overall purpose of the literature review?
The overall purpose of the literature review is to present a strong knowledge base for the conduct of the research study.

As students what should be our first choice when looking for theoretical, clinical, or research articles?
Refereed or peer-reviewed journals

Refereed or peer-reviewed journals
Refeered or peer-reviewed journals have a panel of internal and external reviewers who review submitted manuscripts for possible publication. The external reviewers are drawn from a pool of nurse scholars, and possibly scholars from other related disciplines who are experts in various specialties. In most cases, the reviews are “blind”; that is, the manuscript to be reviewed does not include the name of the author(s).

In contrast to quantitative studies, the literature reviews of qualitative studies are usually handled in a different manner. How is this so?
-There is often little known about the topic under study. The literature may be conducted at the beginning of the study or after that data analysis is completed with qualitative.

Why is nursing research valuable to the consumers of health care?
Correct Research provides evidence that nursing care makes a difference.

What is the purpose of the World Health Organization (WHO)’s designated Collaborating Centers throughout the United States?
To provide research and clinical training in nursing to colleagues around the globe

How is evidence-based practice derived?
From research on patient outcomes

Which research process steps may be noted in an article’s abstract? (Select all that apply.)
A. Correct Identifying the phenomenon
B. Correct Research question study purpose
C. Literature review
D. Correct Design
E. Incorrect Sample
F. Legal-ethical issues
G. Data-collection procedure
A. Identifying the phenomenon
B. Research question study purpose
D. Design

What does a level-of-evidence model use to evaluate the strength of a research study and its findings? (Select all that apply.)
A. Creativity
B. Quality
C. Quantity
D. Consistency
E. Efficiency
B. Quality
C. Quantity
D. Consistency

13. What are the critiquing criteria used to judge the worth of a research study? (Select all that apply.)
A. Measures
B. Objectives
C. Standards
D. Effectiveness
E. Evaluation guides
F. Questions
A. Measures
C. Standards
E. Evaluation guides
F. Questions

15 . Which statement best describes qualitative research? (Select all that apply.)
A. Studies are conducted in natural settings.
B. Data are collected from a large number of subjects.
C. Data collected tend to be numeric.
D. The research design is systematic and subjective.
A. Studies are conducted in natural settings.
D. The research design is systematic and subjective.

What does a critique of a research study always include? (Select all that apply.)
A. Determining its strengths and weaknesses
B. Researching similar studies
C. Using critical reading skills
D. Explaining your own personal opinions
A. Correct Determining its strengths and weaknesses
C. Correct Using critical reading skills

17. For which of the following research questions would qualitative methods be most appropriate?
A. Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medication in elderly patients?

B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?

C. Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quickly?

D. How does frequency of medication administration impact the degree of pain experienced following knee replacement surgery?

B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. This question seeks to explore a phenomenon (health) for a specific population.

Data collected from an experimental study
where subjects were randomly selected are an example of what level of study?
Level II

Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a qualitative study?
A. “The hypothesis of this study is ? .”
Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. A study with a hypothesis is a quantitative study.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. A study that collects numeric data is a quantitative study.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. A study with a control group is a quantitative study.
B. “Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale? .”
C. “The control group received no instruction ? .”
D. Correct “Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain ? .”
Rationale (CORRECT): 4. Data collected were perceptions of pain, not numeric data.
D. Correct “Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain ? .”
4. Data collected were perceptions of pain, not numeric data.

(INCORRECT):
A.”The hypothesis of this study is ? .” 1. A study with a hypothesis is a quantitative study.

(INCORRECT):
B.”Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale? .”
2. A study that collects numeric data is a quantitative study.

(INCORRECT):
C.”The control group received no instruction ? .” 3. A study with a control group is a quantitative study.

Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a quantitative study?
A. “A convenience sample was chosen ? .”

B. “The phenomenon studied was ? .”

C. “Data were analyzed and interpreted ? .”

D. “Researchers sought to explore the meaning of the hospital experience ? .”

A. Rationale (CORRECT): 1. When a sample of convenience is chosen, the study is a quantitative study.

B. “The phenomenon studied was ? .”
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Qualitative studies explore phenomena.

C. “Data were analyzed and interpreted ? .”
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. Data collected in qualitative studies are “interpreted.”

D. Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Qualitative studies explore the meaning of human experience.

A nurse researcher develops the following
research question: Is there a relationship between anxiety and body weight in premenopausal and postmenopausal women? Which type of research question format is this considered to be?
Correlational

A nurse researcher develops the following research question: Do menopausal women who received daily doses of an herbal hormone treatment report a lesser number of hot flashes than women who did not receive the treatment? Which type of research question format is this considered to be?
Comparative

Which of the following hypotheses are indicative
of an experimental research design? (Select all that apply.)

A. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters will be positively related to urinary tract infections.

B. The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in patients whose Foley catheters are irrigated frequently than in those whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.

C. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters is associated with urinary tract infections.

D. The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between patients with or without Foley catheters.

B. Correct The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in patients whose Foley catheters are irrigated frequently than in those whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.

D. Correct The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between patients with or without Foley catheters.

Which statements are part of the criteria used to
judge the soundness of a stated research question? (Select all that apply.)

A. A relationship between two or more variables
B. An operational definition of each variable
C. The nature of the population being tested
D. The possibility of empirical testing

A. Rationale (CORRECT): 1. The research question must seek to discover a relationship between two or more variables.

C. Rationale (CORRECT): 3. The research question must include the nature of the population being tested.

D. Rationale (CORRECT): 4. The research question must include the possibility of empirical testing.
Incorrect Feedback:

Which criteria are used to determine testability of a hypothesis? (Select all that apply.)
A. Use of quantifiable words such as greater than or less than
B. A hypothesis stated in such a way that it can be clearly supported or not supported
C. The use of value-laden words in a hypothesis
D. Data-collection efforts that prove the validity of the hypothesis
A,B

Rationale (CORRECT): 1. Quantifiable words increase the testability of a hypothesis.
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. The more clearly the hypothesis is stated, the easier it will be to accept or reject it based on study findings.
Incorrect Feedback:
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. Hypotheses should not have value-laden words.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Data-collection processes are not part of the criterion used to evaluate the testability of hypotheses.

What are the advantages to using directional
hypotheses? (Select all that apply.)
A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the hypothesis
B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference
C. Ensurance that findings will be generalizable
D. The indication of a nonbiased selection of subjects
A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the hypothesis

B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference

Which one of the following statements about
hypotheses is most accurate?

A. Hypotheses represent the main idea to be studied and are the foundations of research studies.

B. Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.

C. Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory.

D. A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.

A. Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. It is the research question that represents the main idea to be studied.

B. B. Correct Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. Although theories cannot be tested directly, hypotheses provide a bridge between theory and the real world.

C. Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory. Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. Theories cannot be tested directly.

D. A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. The research question is also called the problem statement.

A nurse wants to study the effectiveness of meditation on people with anxiety disorder. Which variable would be most relevant to explore in the literature on this topic?

A. Use of meditation during childbirth
B. Meditation techniques found to be effective
C. Pain management for people with anxiety disorders
D. Outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations

B. Meditation techniques found to be effective

What is a characteristic of an independent variable?
A. It is the variable that is predicted to change.
B. It varies with a change in the dependent variable.
C. Correct It is manipulated by the researcher.
D. It can be identified only by changes in the dependent variable.
C.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. It is the dependent variable that is predicted to change.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. The independent variable is presumed to change the dependent variable.
Rationale (CORRECT): 3. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and has a presumed effect on the dependent variable.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is identified at the beginning of the study.

Which statement is most accurate regarding hypotheses?
A. Hypotheses operationally define the dependent variables.

B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among variables.

C. Hypotheses describe the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable.

D. Hypotheses must include a definition of the treatment or intervention used.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Hypotheses are not concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study.

B. Correct Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among variables.
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships between two or more variables that suggest an answer to the research question.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. The independent variable is not affected or changed by the dependent variable.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Hypotheses are not concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study, including treatments or interventions.

What is a characteristic of a hypothesis?

A. It flows from interpretation of the data collected.

B. It operationally defines the variable to be studied.

C. It eliminates the need to designate a dependent variable.

D. It implies a causative or associative relationship.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. A hypothesis guides the research design and collection of data.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Operational definitions are not included in the hypothesis.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. The hypothesis indicates the dependent variable.

D. Correct It implies a causative or associative relationship.
Rationale (CORRECT): 4. A hypothesis implies a causative or associative relationship.

When should a hypothesis be developed by the researcher during the research process?
A. Before development of the research question
B. Correct After development of the research question
C. After a research design is determined
D. Before any statistical analysis
B. Rationale (CORRECT): 2. The hypothesis is developed after development of the research question.

Which research hypothesis is most testable?

A. There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disorders.

B. Patients with anxiety disorders who learn meditation techniques have less anxiety than those who do not.

C. Teaching one meditation technique to patients with anxiety disorders will be better than teaching multiple techniques.

D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who do not meditate.

D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who do not meditate.
Rationale (CORRECT): 4. This hypothesis meets the criteria of testability.

What is a characteristic of a statistical hypothesis?
A. It is a null hypothesis.

B. It predicts a positive relationship among variables.

C. It is a complex hypothesis.

D. It describes data-analysis methods.

A. Correct It is a null hypothesis.
Rationale (CORRECT): 1. Statistical hypotheses, called null hypotheses, state that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

When will a null hypothesis be rejected?
A. There is no association among variables.

B. There is evidence of significance.

C. The independent and dependent variables are related.

D. The research hypothesis is rejected.

C. Rationale (CORRECT): 3. Because the null hypothesis states that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables, it is rejected if they are related.

Which level is characteristic of the strength of
the evidence provided by the results of a quasi-experimental study?
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV
C. Level III
Rationale (CORRECT): 3. Evidence provided by quasi-experimental studies is level III.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Level I evidence is obtained from a systematic review of all randomized, controlled trials.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed randomized, controlled trial.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Level IV evidence is obtained from nonexperimental studies.

A researcher wants to discover why patients of
certain ethnic backgrounds are reluctant to ask for pain medication. Because there are little data in the literature on this topic, the researcher designs a study to explore the relationships between cultural belief systems, the experience of pain, and the effective use of medication to relieve pain. The researcher plans to use the findings of this study to formulate hypotheses for a future study. What is a characteristic of this study?
A. It is a quasi-experimental study.

B. It will lead to level II data.

C. It has a directional hypothesis.

D. Correct It is a hypothesis-generating study.

D; Rationale (CORRECT): 4. Not enough is known in this area at this time to formulate hypotheses, so the researcher will conduct this qualitative study and use the findings to generate hypotheses for future studies.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. This is a qualitative study, not a quasi-experimental study.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed randomized, controlled trial.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. This study has no hypothesis.

The nurse develops the following hypothesis:
Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the dependent variable?
A. Degree of treatment received
B. Age of the patient
C. Type of cancer being treated
D. Use of inpatient treatment
A. 1. The degree of treatment received is considered the dependent variable.

(INCORRECT): 2. The age of the patient would be the independent variable.

The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the independent variable?
A. Degree of treatment received

B. Age of the patient

C. Type of cancer being treated

D. Incorrect Use of inpatient treatment

B. Correct Age of the patient
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. The age of the patient would be the independent variable.

Degree of treatment received
Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. The degree of treatment rec

4 ways that qualitative findings can be used in EBP (4 modes of clinical application from Kearney)
1. Insight or empathy
2. Assessment of status or progress
3. Anticipatory guidance
4. Coaching

Descriptions of trajectories of illness. Ex: Nurse is able to describe trajectory of recovery from depression, and can assess how her pt is moving through their trajectory.
Assessment of status or progress.

Sharing of qualitative findings with the pt. Ex: nurse is able to explain the phases of recovery from depression to her patient and to reassure her that is is not alone, that others have made it through a similar experience.
Anticipatory Guidance

Advising patients of the steps they can take to reduce distress or improve adjustment to an illness, according to the evidence in the study. Ex: nurse describes the 6 stages of recovery from depression to her pt, and in ongoing contact, points out how the pt is moving through the stages.
Coaching

Kearney’s Categories of Qualitative Findings
1. Descriptive categories
2. Shared pathway or meaning
3. Depiction of experimental variation
4. Dense explanatory description
5. Restricted by a priori (existing theory) frameworks

Discovery has aborted because the researcher has obscured the findings with an existing theory.
Restricted by a priori (existing theory) frameworks

Phenomenon is vividly portrayed from a new perspective; provides a map into previously uncharted territory in the human experience of health and illness.
Descriptive categories

Synthesis of a shared experience of process; integration of concepts that provides a complex picture of a phenomenon.
Shared pathway or meaning

Described the main sequence of an experience, but also shows how the experience varies, depending on the individual or context
Depiction of experimental variation

Rich, situated understanding of a multifaceted and varied human phenomenon in a unique situation; portray the full range and depth of complex influences; densely woven structure to findings.
Dense explanatory description

Steps in the qualitative research process (8 steps)
1. Literature review
2. Study Design
3. Sample
4. Setting/recruitment
5. Data collection
6. Data analysis
7. Findings
8. Conclusions

Philosophical beliefs, a world view
Paradigm-all research is based off a paradigm.

Which of the following could be considered the
“context” of a study? (Select all that apply.)

A. Cultural understandings and beliefs of study participants
B. The physical setting of the study
C. The sample selected for the study
D. The number of subjects in the study

A.
B.

Which beliefs guide the constructivist paradigm?
(Select all that apply.)

A. There are multiple realities.
B. The truth is objective.
C. Context does not matter as much as truth.
D. The participant (subject) is an active part of the study

A. D.

Which of the following are consistent with the
constructivist paradigm? (Select all that apply.)

A. Subjectivism is valued.
B. Natural laws exist.
C. Time and place are important.
D. Generalizability is valued.

A.
C.

Which paradigm provides the basis for qualitative research?

A. Empirical analytical research

B. Constructivism

C. Postpositivism

D. Naturalistic research

B. Constructivism.
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. The paradigm that provides the basis for qualitative research is constructivism.

What are the “aims of inquiry”?
The goals of the research study

Which type of research allows researchers to be
neutral observers?

A. Qualitative research
B. Ethnographic research
C. Quantitative research
D. Case studies

C. Quantitative research

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. In qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. In ethnography, a type of qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. In case studies, a type of qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral.

Which type of research study can be affected by detracting values of the researcher?

A. Qualitative
B. Naturalistic
C. Ethnographic
D. Quantitative

D; quantitative

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in qualitative research.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2.The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in naturalistic research.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in qualitative research.

What is the philosophy underlying quantitative research?
Positivism and postpositivism

What is the purpose of grounded theory?
A. To support theoretical frameworks
B. To generate theory from data
C. To develop explanatory models
D. To find significant differences among groups of people
B. To generate theory from data

1. The grounded theory method refers to a qualitative approach of building theory about a phenomenon about which little is known.

Why is it important to understand the philosophy underlying each type of research?

A. Conclusions reached should be congruent with the research question.
B. The research method that best meets intended purpose of the study should be used.
C. The paradigm of the method should be the same as that of the researcher.
D. The reader should understand the level of abstraction of the study.

B. The research method that best meets intended purpose of the study should be used.

Rationale (CORRECT): 2. Different research methods accomplish different goals and offer different types and levels of evidence that inform practice.

Which conceptual analysis point of the framework for rigor used for interpretive phenomenology refers to how the study findings will continue to have meaning for the reader?

A. Resonance
B. Concreteness
C. Actualization
D. Openness

C. Actualization

Which question will critique the sampling of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

Which question will critique the method of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

Which question will critique the purpose of a research project?
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

Which question will critique the credibility of a
research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. Does the researcher document the research process?
C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?
D. Has adequate time been allowed to understand fully the phenomenon?

D. Has adequate time been allowed to understand fully the phenomenon?

Which question will critique the auditability of a research project?
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. Does the researcher document the research process?
C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?
D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?
B. Does the researcher document the research process?

Which question will critique the fittingness of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. Does the researcher document the research process?
C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?
D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

What is an inductive approach involving a systematic set of procedures to arrive at a theory about basic social processes? The emergent theory is based on observations and perceptions of the social scene and evolves during data collection and analysis as a product of the actual research process. Used to construct theory where no theory exists or in situations where existing theory fails to provide evidence to explain a set of circumstances.
Grounded theory method

In the phemenological approach, what does it mean for the researcher’s persepctive to be bracketed?
Setting aside own biases to prevent the leading the participants to issues deemed important to the researcher.

What does it mean that the sampling is purposive?
Participants are chosen b/c they are experiencing the phenomena.

What is it called when researchers direct activities in the field by pursuing hunches?
Theoretical sampling

What type of study focuses on scientific description and interpretation of cultural or social groups and systems?

Ex: A nurse studied the culture of how elderly citizens used a senior center in North Philadelphia to access healthcare. She observed and interviewed 50 elders and focused especially on key informants.

Ethnographic studies

What is the researcher’s perspective in a case study?
Goes from Etic (researcher’s perspective) to emic (insider’s perspective)

What is the goal of community-based research methods?
The goal is to identify a problem (often in an oppressed group), collect and analyze data, and then formulate solutions to effect social or political transformation.

What is the adequacy of information leading the reader from the research question and raw data to the interpretation of the findings?
Auditability-should be able to follow the reasoning of the researcher step-by-step.

What is the faithfulness to everyday reality of the participants, described in enough detail so that other disciplines can evaluate importance?
Fittingness

What is the truth of findings as judged by participants and others within the discipline?
Credibility–the researcher returns to the participants to share interpretation of findings.

What are the uses of qualitative research methods? (Select all that apply.)

A. Guiding nursing practice
B. Studying the effects of nursing care on an outcome variable
C. Developing survey instruments
D. Developing nursing theory

A. Guiding nursing practice
C. Developing survey instruments
D. Developing nursing theory

What are scientific criteria appropriate for qualitative research? (Select all that apply.)

A. Auditability
B. Credibility
C. Fittingness
D. Reliability

A. Auditability
B. Credibility
C. Fittingness

What are ethical concerns for qualitative researchers? (Select all that apply.)

A. Because the study emerges over time, the researcher may not anticipate and inform the participants of a potential threat.
B. To maintain a naturalistic environment for interviews, formal documents such as consent forms are not used.
C. Because there are so few participants in a qualitative study, no participant can opt out of the study.
D. Because the researcher and participant interact over a period of time, relationships developed between them may change the focus of the interaction

A. Because the study emerges over time, the researcher may not anticipate and inform the participants of a potential threat.
D. Because the researcher and participant interact over a period of time, relationships developed between them may change the focus of the interaction

Which of the following is most accurate regarding the grounded-theory method?

A. Data are collected using an etic perspective.

B. It is a process of constructing human experience.
C. Secondary sources are sometimes used.
D. It is an inductive approach.

D. It is an inductive approach.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Data are collected using the emic perspective.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. The grounded-theory method is a process of constructing theory from human experience.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. In grounded-theory only primary sources (the participants) are used.

What is the term used for the coding and clustering of data to form categories in the grounded-theory method?
A. Theoretical sampling
B. Constant-comparative method
C. Emic method
D. Metasynthesis
B. Constant-comparative method

What is a characteristic of an intrinsic case study?

A. It yields a better understanding of each case.
B. It provides a foundation to challenge a generalization.
C. It does not include quantitative data.
D. It can scrutinize only uncomplicated phenomena.

A. It yields a better understanding of each case.
Rationale (CORRECT): 1. An intrinsic case study is undertaken to have a better understanding of the case.

What is a characteristic of metasynthesis?

A. It is useful for triangulating research.
B. It synthesizes critical masses of qualitative findings.
C. It leads to a higher reliability of research findings.
D. It cannot be conducted on historical or case study findings.

B. It synthesizes critical masses of qualitative findings.

What is meant by the “fittingness” of a research study?

A. Truth of findings as judged by the participants
B. The appropriateness of the interview questions posed
C. Faithfulness to everyday reality of the participants
D. The adequacy of the coding system used

C. Faithfulness to everyday reality of the participants

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Credibility is the truth of findings as judged by the participants.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Auditability assists the reader to judge the appropriateness of the interview questions posed.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Auditability assists the reader to judge the adequacy of the coding system used.

What is this an example of?: Do the participants recognize the experience as their own? Has adequate time been allowed to understand the phenomenon fully?

“Truth of findings as judged by participants and others within the discipline/

This is credibility

What is this an example of?:
Can the reader follow the researcher’s reasoning? Does the researcher document the research process? It is judged by the adequacy of information leading the reader from the research question and raw data through various steps of analysis to the interpretation of findings.
This is auditability

What is this an example of?:
Are the findings applicable to other, similar situations? Are the results meaningful to nursing? IS that strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study? It is the faithfulness to everyday reality of the participants described in enough detail so that others in the discipline can evaluate importance for their own practice, research, and theory development.
Fittingness

How can qualitative outcome analysis be used? (Select all that apply.)

A. To determine the reliability of intervention outcomes in a study
B. To confirm the applicability of clinical strategies
C. To develop interventions and then test those selected
D. To build theory

B. To confirm the applicability of clinical strategies
C. To develop interventions and then test those selected
D. To build theory

When critiquing a qualitative study, which of the following questions are helpful in determining the study’s auditability? (Select all that apply.)

A. Has adequate time been allowed to understand the phenomenon fully?
B. Can the reader follow the researcher’s thinking?
C. Are the results meaningful to individuals not involved in the research?
D. Does the researcher document the research process?

B. Can the reader follow the researcher’s thinking?
C. Are the results meaningful to individuals not involved in the research?

Qualitative outcome analysis yields evidence at
what level?
V.

The researcher should include enough information in the report to allow the reader to understand how the raw data lead to the interpretation. What does this demonstrate?
Auditability

The researcher provides enough detail in a qualitative research report for the reader to evaluate the relevance of the data to nursing practice. What is the researcher demonstrating?
Fittingness

Which question is helpful in determining the
study’s credibility?

A. Do the participants recognize the experience as their own?
B. What strategies were used to analyze the data?
C. How were human subjects protected?
D. Are the findings applicable outside the study situation?

A. Do the participants recognize the experience as their own?

Define research design
A framework that the researcher creates.

Means of control:
-Homogenous sample
-Consistent data-collection procedures
-Manipulation of IV
-Randomization

Homogenous sample
-Participants in the study are homogenous or have similar extraneous variables that might affect the dependent variable. Homogeneity of the sample limits generalizability or the potential to apply the results of a study to other populations.

Constancy
-Data collection procedures are the same for each subject; data collected in the same manner and under the same conditions.

Manipulation of the Independent variable
-Experimental and control groups
-The independent variable is: the variable that the researcher hypothesizes will have an effect on the dependent variable. Usually manipulated (experimental study) but sometimes cannot be manipulated (nonexperimental)

Randomization
-Each subject in a population as an equal chance of being selected.
-Each subject in the study has an equal chance of being assigned to the control group or the experimental group.

Internal validity
-Asks whether the IV really made the difference or the change in the dependent variable.
-Established by ruling out other factors or threats as rival explanations.
-Must be established before external validity can be established.

The threats to internal validity (6)
1. History-an event, other than the intervention, that might have an effect on the DV; the event could be either inside or outside the experimental setting.
2. Maturation-Developmental, biological, or psychological processes that operate within an individual over time. These processes are outside the experimental setting.
3. Testing-Taking the same test more than once can influence the participant’s responses the next time the test is taken.
4. Instrumentation-Changes in equipment used to make measurements or changes in observational techniques may cause measurements to vary between participants related to treatment fidelity.
5. Mortality-Loss of subjects between pretest and post test
6. Selection bias-A partiality in choosing the participants in a study.

Define external validity
-Questions the conditions under which the findings be generalized.
-Deals with the ability to generalize the findings outside the study to other populations and environments.

The conditions that affect external validity: (3)
1. Selection effects: what method was used to select the sample? How were the subjects assigned to groups? Generalizability to other populations
2. Reactive effects: subjects response to being studied-Hawthorne effect
3. Measurement effects: Administration of a pretest affects generalizability of the findings to other populations. A pretest may act like an intervention and influence or change the subjects’ responses.

Which of the following are means of controlling extraneous variables? (Select all that apply.)

A. Randomly selecting subjects
B. Using a homogeneous sample
C. Manipulating the dependent variable
D. Conducting a pilot test

A. Randomly selecting subjects
B. Using a homogeneous sample

Administration of an intervention to one group of subjects and not another is an example of: (Select all that apply.)

A. Homogeneity of subjects.
B. Manipulation of the independent variable.
C. An experimental study.
D. The introduction of bias.

B. Manipulation of the independent variable.
C. An experimental study.

A researcher studies the differences in IQ between girls and boys. She tests cohorts of girls and boys in the third grade and then tests the same girls and boys when they are in the sixth grade. Which of the following are threats to internal validity in this study? (Select all that apply.)

A. Maturation
B. History
C. Testing
D. Measurement effects

A. Maturation
C. Testing

Rationale (CORRECT): 1. Maturation refers to developmental processes within subjects over time.
Rationale (CORRECT): 3. Testing refers to the influence on subjects’ responses caused by taking the same test repeatedly.
Incorrect Feedback:
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. History refers to events that occur outside the experimental setting.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Measurement effects refer to the effect of a pretest on the generalizability of the study findings.

In quantitative research, the purpose of control is to avoid:

A. Duplication.
B. Bias.
C. Randomization.
D. Homogeneity.

B. Bias.
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. The researcher holds conditions of the study uniform to avoid possible impact of bias on the outcome.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Duplication is not a relevant term for describing rigor in the research process.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. Randomization is an aim of quantitative research, not something to be avoided.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Homogeneity of subjects is an aim of quantitative research, not something to be avoided.

Objectivity in the conceptualization of the research question is derived from:

A. A random sample of subjects.
B. A control group.
C. The review of literature.
D. The selection of instruments to be used.

C. The review of literature.
Rationale (CORRECT): 3. The review of the literature, as well as the theoretical framework, informs the researcher of the breadth and depth of available knowledge in the area.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Conceptualization of the research question occurs before sample selection.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Conceptualization of the research question occurs before sample selection.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Conceptualization of the research question occurs before instrument selection.

Accuracy in the research design means that:

A. All aspects of the study logically flow from the research question.
B. All mediating variables have been controlled.
C. Gaps in the literature have been identified.
D. The timing of data collection was the same for each subject.

A. All aspects of the study logically flow from the research question.

For large experimental studies, conducting a pilot study helps the researcher determine the:

A. Degree of internal control over dependent variables.
B. Accuracy and objectivity of the design.
C. Feasibility of the research design.
D. Constancy of data collection.

C. Feasibility of the research design.

Control is defined as:
A. Having a large sample size.
B. Manipulating the dependent variable.
C. Having a basis of comparison for each experimental group of subjects.
D. Holding conditions of the study constant.
D. Holding conditions of the study constant.

Subjects should demonstrate homogeneity with respect to which variables?

A. Independent
B. Dependent
C. Extraneous
D. Outcome

C. Extraneous

Internal validity asks:
A. If the study is generalizable to the larger population
B. If the Hawthorne effect affected the findings.
C. Whether the independent variable really made the change in the dependent variable.
D. Whether study findings are a result of measurement effects.
C. Whether the independent variable really made the change in the dependent variable.

A research study was underway looking at the frequency of mammograms in perimenopausal women. During the study a celebrity was diagnosed with breast cancer. The effect of this event on the research findings is called:
A. Maturation
B. Reactivity
C. Constancy
D. History
D. History
This event occurred outside the experimental setting and may have had an effect on the dependent variable.

A researcher decides to use six people to help him collect data for a quantitative study. Which one of the following is potentially a threat to the internal validity of this study?
A. History
B. Instrumentation
C. Maturation
D. Selection effects
B. Instrumentation

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. History refers to events that occur outside the experimental setting.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. Maturation refers to developmental processes within subjects over time.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Selection bias occurs if precautions are not used to gain a representative sample.

A nurse, conducting a clinical trial, administers a pain medication to an experimental group and a placebo (sugar pill) to the control group. To her surprise, both groups experienced a significant reduction in pain. This may be due to:

A. Maturation
B. Reactivity
C. Measurement effects
D. Instrumentation

B. Reactivity

Hawthorne Effect
The central idea behind the Hawthorne effect is that changes in participants’ behavior during the course of a study may be “related only to the special social situation and social treatment they received.”

The historical background that led to the development of ethical guidelines for the use of human subjects in research
-Nazi experiments 1930’s-1940’s
-Tuskegee: Untreated syphilis in black males: 1932-1973
-Jewish chronic disease study 1965
-San Antonio Contraceptive study 1969-impoverished hispanic women
-Willowbrook: Hepatitis/gamma globulin in children: 1972
-UCLA Schizophrenia medication study: 1983
-AIDS/AZT study 1980’s

What should be included as part of an informed consent?

A. Study procedures
B. Benefits of the study
C. Any alternative procedures or treatments
D. A waiver of rights in case of injury.

A. Study procedures
B.Benefits of the study
C. Any alternative procedures or treatments

How can retrospective studies simultaneously exist as functional entities? (Select all that apply).

A. They can be universities.
B. They can be any organization applying for a federal grant.
C. They can be hospitals.
D. They can be any agency that does not receive grant funding.

A, B, C

Correct Feedback:
Rationale (CORRECT): 1. Universities and colleges conducting research or other projects involving human subjects must have an institutional review board (IRB) to review proposals.
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. Any organization that applies for federal grants must have an IRB.
Rationale (CORRECT): 3. Hospitals that conduct research must have an IRB.
Incorrect Feedback:
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Agencies that do not receive grant funding or conduct research do not need an IRB.

The National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research identified three ethical principles relevant to the conduct of research involving human subjects. Which principle is included along with respect for person and beneficence?
Justice

By whom was the historical origin of the first code of ethics developed?
Isabel Hampton Robb.
Rationale (CORRECT): 4. In 1900 Isabel Hampton Robb wrote Nursing Ethics: For Hospital and Private Use to describe moral laws by which people must abide.

Which one of the following statements is true about informed consent?

A. This requirement is satisfied by giving a research participant a consent form.
B. Data from patients’ records can be used regardless of the willingness of the patient to participate if the data are kept confidential.
C. The consent form must be written at an eighth-grade level.
D. The presence of a witness is mandatory.

C. The consent form must be written at an eighth-grade level.

To study the effects of a new antiviral drug on people with AIDS, a researcher conducts a study on a prison population. Which of the following ethical concerns is of immediate concern?

A. Vulnerable populations may not be selected for the sake of convenience.
B. The study must be approved by an IRB panel.
C. The language of the consent form must be understandable.
D. The confidentiality of data collected must be
protected.

Vulnerable populations may not be selected for the sake of convenience.
Rationale (CORRECT): 1. Prison populations are considered vulnerable populations and may not be selected unless this population is clearly appropriate for the study. Vulnerable populations may not be chosen simply for the sake of convenience.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Although the study must be approved by an IRB panel, there is an ethical concern that must be addressed before the proposal is submitted to the IRB.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 3. Although the language of the consent form must be understandable, there is an ethical concern that must be addressed before potential subjects are recruited.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Although the confidentiality of the data collected must be protected, there is an ethical concern that must be addressed before data are collected.

When research participation is a condition of employment, nurses must be informed in writing about the nature of the activity involved in advance of employment. This is which one of the ANA Human Rights Guidelines?
Right to self-determination

Guidelines for protection of human rights apply to all subjects involved in research activities. This is which one of the ANA Human Rights Guidelines?

A. Responsibilities to support knowledge development.
B. Informed consent
C. Right to freedom from risk or harm
D. Scope of application

Correct Scope of application
Rationale (CORRECT): 4. The scope of application guideline states that the rights of all people involved in research must be protected.

Which of the following is a true statement about anonymity or confidentiality?

A. Anonymity means that the researcher agrees not to link the information collected with the subject when reporting study findings.
B. Anonymity means that the subject’s identity cannot be linked, even by the researcher, to data obtained.
C. Confidentiality means that the subject has the right to determine the time and circumstances under which private information is shared.
D. Confidentiality means that data obtained are known only to the researcher.

Anonymity means that the subject’s identity cannot be linked, even by the researcher, to data obtained.
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. To maintain anonymity, no one must be able to trace the data to the participant.

Which one of the following situations is an
example of coercion?
A. People become research subjects and are exposed to research treatments without being aware of it.
B. Subjects are misinformed about the purpose of the research.
C. Subjects feel that their case will be adversely affected if they refuse to participate in a research study.
D. Subject responses can be linked with their identity.
Subjects feel that their case will be adversely affected if they refuse to participate in a research study.

Which ethical principle is an obligation to do no harm and maximize possible benefits?
Beneficence

Which ethical principle is the requirement to treat human subjects fairly?
Justice

Which ethical principle is violated when a benefit to which a person is entitled is denied without good reason or when a burden is imposed unduly?
Justice

Which ethical principle states that people have the right to self-determination and to treatment as autonomous agents?
Respect for persons

Which ethical principle would be violated if a person was not given the freedom to participate or not participate in research?
Respect for persons

Which ethical principle would be violated if a person with diminished autonomy was not given protection?
Respect for persons

Which ethical principle specifies that persons must be respected and protected from harm?
Beneficence

Which basic human right states that justification for use of vulnerable subjects must be provided?
Right to self-determination

Which basic human right states that individual identities of subjects will not be linked to the information they provide and will not be publicly divulged?
Right to anonymity and confidentiality

Does Invalid measures that produce unreliable or invalid estimates of the relationship between variables affect internal or external validity?
Internal validity

All of the items in an instrument measure the same concept or characteristic?
Homogeneity

What are the major tests of reliability?
-The reliability coefficient expresses the relationship between the error variance, true variance, and the observed score.

-Scored between 0-1.
-0 means no relationship
-1 means 100% reliability.
-Closer to 1 more reliable.
-An instrument should be 0.70 or higher to be considered reliable.

Kuder-Richardson (KR-20) coefficient (Dichotomous Response)
The estimate of homogeneity used for instruments that have dichotomous response format. (One in which the question asks for a yes/no or T/F response.

Cronbach’s alpha (Likert-type response)
-Most commonly used test of internal consistency; a Likert scale format asks the subject to respond to a question on a scale of varying degrees of intensity between two extremes.

Which tests are used to estimate the stability of an instrument? (Select all that apply):
Test-retest reliability
Parallel reliability

What does validity concern?
Constant error

Researchers used an instrument to measure self-esteem in adolescent mothers. To measure the validity of this instrument, they used a second instrument known to measure self-esteem in women. What type of validity were they measuring?
Concurrent validity
Rationale (CORRECT): 3. Concurrent validity refers to the degree of correlation of two measures of the same concept administered at the same time.

Rationale (INCORRECT): 1. Predictive validity refers to the degree of correlation between the measure of the concept and some future measure of the same concept.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 2. Face validity refers to expert verification that the instrument measures what it purports to measure.
Rationale (INCORRECT): 4. Construct validity refers to the extent to which a test measures a theoretical construct or trait.

Sometimes two or more tools that theoretically measure the same construct are administered to the same subjects and a correlational analysis is performed. This is a strategy to test what type of validity?
Construct validity

Researchers administered one tool that measured the concept of hope and another that measured the concept of anxiety to the same group of subjects. The scores on the first instrument were negatively related to the scores on the second instrument. This is a measure of what type of validity?
Divergent validity

All items in a tool should measure the same concept or characteristic. What is this called?
Homogeneity

What is the relationship between the error variance, the true variance, and the observed score called?
The reliability coefficient
Rationale (CORRECT): 4. The reliability coefficient measures the relationship among the error variance, the true variance, and the observed score.

In one study, the KR-20 coefficient was 0.01. What did this indicate?
Correct No correlation between the error variance, true variance, and observed score
Rationale (CORRECT): 1. The lower the coefficient, the lower the correlation.

What attribute of an instrument is the KR-20 coefficient measuring?
Homogeneity
Rationale (CORRECT): 3. The Kuder-Richardson (KR-20) coefficient is used to estimate the homogeneity of instruments with a dichotomous response format.

Which measurement would a researcher use to test for reliability when the data are in dichotomous (“yes/no”) format?
KR-20 coefficient
Rationale (CORRECT): 2. The KR-20 coefficient is used to estimate the homogeneity of instruments.

Which measurement would a researcher use to test for reliability when the data are in Likert-scale response format?
Correct Chronbach’s alpha
Rationale (CORRECT): 1. Cronbach’s alpha measures the homogeneity of an instrument with a Likert-type format.

A Cronbach’s alpha coefficient of 0.94 was obtained for an instrument. What does this indicate?
A high degree of internal consistency

Which reliability measure is considered to be a test of stability?
Test-retest reliability

Which reliability measure is considered to be a test of equivalence?
Parallel, or alternate-form, reliability

Which reliability measure is considered to be a test of homogeneity? (Select all that apply).

A. Split-half reliability
B. Test-retest reliability
C. Parallel, or alternate-form, reliability
D. Cronbach’s alpha

A. Split-half reliability
D. Cronbach’s alpha

Which reliability measures are considered to be tests of equivalence?
Interrater reliability
Parallel, or alternate form, reliability

Which reliability measures are considered to be tests of stability? (Select all that apply).
Parallel, or alternate-form, reliability
CorrectTest-retest reliability

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